(Book) Hachette Children's Yearbook and Infopedia - 2017

Book Details:

Reading level: 10 - 16 years

Paperback: 256 pages

Publisher: Hachette India; Latest edition (25 October 2016)

Language: English

ISBN-10: 9351951278

ISBN-13: 978-9351951278

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NCERT Hindi Question Paper (Class-9)

Chapter 1 do Bailo ki Katha

Chapter 2 Lhasa Ki aur

Chapter 3 Upbhokta vad ki sanskriti

Chapter 4 Savle sapno ki yaad

Chapter 5 Nana Sahib ke putri Devi Maina Ko bhasm Kar Diya Gaya

Chapter 6 Premchand Ke Phate Jute

Chapter 7 Mere Bachpan Ke Din By Mahadevi Verma

Chapter 8 Ek Kutta Aur Ek Maina

Chapter 9 Kabir Ki Sakhiyan

Chapter 10 Vakh

Chapter 11 Raskhan Ke Savaiye

Chapter 12 Kaidi Aur Kokila Poem

Chapter 13 Gram Shree Poem

Chapter 14 Chandra Grahan Ki Aur Lotti Ber

Chapter 15 Megh Aaye

Chapter 16 Yamraj Ki Disha

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(Book) Scholastic Year Book - 2017

Book Details:

Pages: 280

Publisher: Scholastic;

Year: 2016

Language: English

ISBN-10: 9386106701

ISBN-13: 978-9386106704

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(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper (Manipuri)

hrs. Total Marks – 30

One Theory Paper – 3 hrs.

Total Marks – 30

General instructions:

• Attempt any six questions.
• Each question carries equal marks.
• Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

1. Why Bharata wrote Natya Shastra? What was the occasion? When it was performed and who were the performer?

2. Name one of the most popular Sanskrit books of poems used in almost all the classical dances of India. Give an example of Manipuri dance.

3. What is Vasant Ras Leela of Manipuri? Explain the basic theme of their leela?

4. What kind of dance is used in the Manipuri Mala Sankeitan? Explain in detail.

5. What is the basic characteristic of Manipuri dance movements and stances?

6. Name the musical instruments traditionally used in Manipuri dance explain their specific use with examples.

7. Explain in detail the costumes of Radha and Krishna in Manipuri dance.

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(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper (Odissi)

One Theory Paper – 3 hrs.

Total Marks – 30

General instructions:

• Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.

• Each question carries equal marks.

1. Name all the nine Rasas. Write short notes on any four Rasas. 5

2. Write short notes on Aharya of Odissi. 5

3. What is the difference between Tandav and Lasya and Lokdharmi and Natyadharmi. 5

4. Describe the four aspects of Abhinay. 5
a. Angika
b. Vacchika
c. Aharya
d. Sattvik

5. Write a brief history of Oddissi Dance with reference to archeological evidences. 5

6. Write notation of learnt item Battu or Sthayi. 5

OR

What do you know about Chhau Dance. Describe the three styles of Chhau Dance.

a. Mauyurbhanj
b. Scraikella
c. Purulia

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(Download) CBSE Class-10 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (English Language & Literature)

Time allowed- 3 hours

Maximum Marks-70

Instructions:-

(a) The question paper is divided in to three sections.

(b) Section A: Reading 20 Marks
Section B: Writing and Grammar 25 Marks
Section C: Literature/ Text Books & Long Reading Texts 25 Marks

(c) All questions are compulsory.

(d) Marks are indicated against each question.

SECTION - A

READING – 20 marks

1. Read the passage given below:

Evolution has designated vultures to be the ultimate scavengers. Enormous wingspans allow them to circle in the air for hours. Their beaks, while rather horrifying, are weak by bird standards, made to scoop and eat flesh.
However unappealing they may seem, vultures serve an important role in the ecological cycle: processing dead bodies of animals. Only 20 years ago, India had plenty of vultures—flocks so enormous they darkened the skies. But by 1999, their numbers had dropped due to a mysterious kidney ailment. By 2008, 99.9 percent of India’s vultures were gone. It was finally discovered that they had been killed by a drug called diclofenac (a pain reliever along the lines of aspirin or ibuprofen).

Indians revere their cows, and when a cow showed signs of pain, they treated it with diclofenac. After the animal died, the vultures would eat the corpse. And though they boast perhaps the world’s most efficient digestive system, vultures cannot digest the drug.

India banned the use of diclofenac for veterinary use in 2006, but it’s still widely used. The near extinction of vultures has caused a disease in the country, as rats and dogs moved in to take their place—spreading pathogens that would have otherwise been destroyed by the vultures Vultures need large ranges to scan for food and undisturbed areas in which to nest. They also need an abundance of prey species since they rely more
on chance than their own hunting skills to eat. All of these things have been reduced by human activity. Meanwhile, there is a dramatic increase in secondary poisoning. Vultures feed on carcasses laced with poison, intended to kill jackals or other predatory carnivores. Or they are poisoned by the lead in animals left behind by hunters.

On the basis of your reading of the passage answer the following questions briefly:

a. Who are the natural scavengers?
b. How do the special beaks and wings/ work?
c. How did their numbers decrease?
d. Why do we need these ‘scavengers’?
e. Why do vultures need more prey ?
f. Why are the dead bodies laced with poison?
g. What is ‘secondary poisoning’?
h. Give any two factors responsible for the death of vultures?

2 Read the passage given below:

1 Children in India live in diverse circumstances and have diverse needs and rights. Along with their need to be educated, healthy and skillful, they need, and have rights to adequate nutrition, to live in a safe and supportive environment, have opportunities to reach their optimal potential and generally lead healthy, joyful and fulfilling lives so that they can be productive and well adjusted citizens of tomorrow.

2. Children in our country face many challenges. Many of them are first generation learners and face myriad problems throughout their schooling. They, due to the socio-economic and cultural determinants may be vulnerable in many ways. Peer pressure and lack of positive role models may prompt them to make unsafe and unhealthy choices. Anxiety and depression amongst the students, to the point of turning them suicidal, have been a cause of concern in the recent past.

3. Girls are more vulnerable and face discrimination at many levels from being unwelcome since birth to being pulled out of school for a variety of reasons. Dropping out of school, low motivation for academics and general disinterest in sports and physical activities too are some of the problems that need to be addressed. Child malnutrition is rampant in most parts of the country. This has an adverse bearing on their cognitive capacities, learning performance and physical capacity.

4. Our children have a right to age appropriate education, skills building, a safe and supportive environment, positive role models, empowerment, and friendly health services and counseling. Well informed and skilled children are likely to make better decisions concerning not only their careers and relationships, habits, physical and mental health, but will be successful and an asset to the society.

5. They also need to understand and deal with emerging issues like newly available career choices, pollution, water and energy conservation, global warming, protection of environment, terrorism and disasters. Dealing with anxiety and depression, negative peer pressure, violence, accidents, are some other significant issues that impact individuals health and also the social, economic and health indicators of the country. Gender sensitivity, prevention of female infanticide and good parenting are some important social issues that all children need to understand. Children require guidance and assistance - both covert and overt- from their Parents, Teachers, peers and society in general to complete the various "tasks" of development and

deal with such issues.

On the basis of your reading of the passage answer the following questions:

a. What makes girls’ lives more challenging?
b. How does malnutrition affect the children ?
c. How are well informed children better than the other children?
d. What are the social issues which the children have to deal with?
e. Identify the meaning of the word :- ‘a great number’ (para2 )
1. Vulnerable, 2. Determinant ,3. Myriad 4. Peer pressure
f. Identify a word which means same as”easily hurt” (para 3)
1. Vulnerable 2. Discrimination 3. Malnutrition 4.Motivation
g. Identify a word which means the same as ‘a valuable person or thing’(para 4)
1.Appropriate 2. Asset 3.Adverse 4. Cognitive
h. Identify a word which means the opposite of ‘ covered’ (para 5)
1. Covert 2. Overt 3.Energy 4. Conservation.

SECTION B

WRITING and GRAMMAR – 25 marks

3 You are Ajeet / Anika, a student of S.M. Public School, Delhi . You are concerned about the water crisis which has become very dangerous .Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper highlighting the need to provide water in drought hit areas and the dire need of creating awareness about the conservation of water through informative posters.

OR

You are Naman /Nalini .You feel that some of your friends are leading a life which is very harmful for their health as they use whats app all the time and waste a lot of their valuable time. They prefer living alone in their rooms and do not communicate with the members of the family or relatives Write an article on 'Importance of Time Management” ' (100 -120 words )

4 Complete the story in about 150 -200 words ----- My mother asked me to go to the market in the evening. Initially first I wanted to avoid but then thinking she needed milk for my little brother I left home reluctantly. I reached the market and was about to pay money for the milk, when suddenly I saw a ----------------------------------.

5 Read the passage given below and fill in the blanks by using the most appropriate word:-.

I was touched (e.g.) when I saw my neighbours sending off their son.I could understand their pain (a )-------------- their only son leaving home . It is always a difficult time for parents (b) -----------it is also inevitable. How long can you keep the birds in cages (c) ----------- their wings are strong and they are ready to fly.

6 The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line against which a blank has been given. Write the incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet against the correct blank number as given in the example. Remember to underline the word that you have supplied.

Disasters often come suddenly ,with warning, and causes great suffering to those which are left alive.

Because these tragedies need immediate help and solution .who should be provided at the earliest.

(e.g. without)
a.---------
b---------
c---------
d--------

7 Rearrange the following words or phrases into meaningful sentences.

One has been done for you as an example.
(e.g.)

Red cross day / an / become /day / the / in /important /world /of / history / has

Red cross day has become an/important day in the history of the world

A. Celebrated /plays /annually /it / role / is / big /the /saving /to /in /lives /
B. Due / war / aims/ human beings / it / relief /distress / to /provide /the /in/to
C. this day/Various/ to celebrateare / held . /programmes /in the schools

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(Download) CBSE Class-10 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (E-Publishing & E-Office)

Max. Marks: 30

Time: 2 hours

(Section A)

1. Which single shortcut key is used to insert/create chart for the selected cell in MS-excel.
2. My class teacher is having the result-sheet of entire class showing total marks for each student. She want me to help her in generating a summary report showing the following:

• Student scoring 90% & above.

• Student scoring 75% & above.

• Student scoring 60% & above.

• Passed Students.

• Fail students

Which chart should I use in ms-excel?

3. (a) In a worksheet column A, B and C are showing the quantity of an item in 3 different departmental stores. If column D is to display the total quantity, write the formula statement.
(b) In Which cell should the above statement be written?

4. In order to insert a formula in an excel sheet, Which menu item is to be clicked?
What is the category type of IF ()?

5. In an excel sheet as shown below, I want computer to automatically set the value for column D as Pass/fail based on the condition.

Marks >=33, Pass
Marks <33, Fail

(a) Write the steps to accomplish the same in ms-excel.
(b) Write the condition Statement for Sunita.
(c). Can we achieve more than two values for result?

For example if marks are more than 75; set result to merit, if marks are in the range of 33 to 74 set result as Pass else Fail. If yes, how?

(Section B)

6. What is the difference between shear & Perspective tool? 2
7. Identify the tools for the following :-

(a) Resize the layer.
(b) Create Mirror image.

8. How can we deform a user defined selection area from an image? What are anchor points?

9. Suggest a tool in GIMP to correct predominant Colors in digital photos. Briefly illustrate about any one adjust Option?

10. Sanjana has got a project work in which she has been given a colored image of a birthday party. She is asked to convert it into a black & white image leaving the birthday child as colored. How can the task be completed.

(Section C)

11. Define:
(a) cookies
(b) cyber law
(c) firewall

(Section D)

12. What is the maximum size of a TIFF file? 1
13. What are the advantages of e-office and its application in e-governance?

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G.S. FOUNDATION COURSE (PRELIMINARY+ MAINS)

Dear Aspirants,
The Indian Civil Services examination is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) every year.

The competitive examination comprises of three stages :

• Preliminary Examination – (Objective Test)
• Main Examination (Written )
• Interview Test

The examination schedule is announced during January - February.

The Preliminary held in May-June and the results are announced in July-August.

The Main examination held in October-November and the candidates those who qualify at this stage are invited to the interview in March-April next year.

IAS Prelims for UPSC Civil Services Exam (Screening Test)

The Preliminary Examination will consist of two papers of Objective type (multiple choice questions) and carrying a maximum of 400 marks (200 marks each) .

General Studies Paper I

• Maximum marks : 200
• Number of Questions : 100
• Time : 02 hours

Syllabus

1. Current events of national and international importance
2. History of India and Indian national movement
3. Indian and World Geography
4. Indian Polity and governance
5. Economic and social development
6. General issues on environmental ecology, bio-diversity and climate change
7. General Science

General Studies Paper II

• Maximum marks : 200
• Number of Questions : 80
• Time : 02 hours

Syllabus

1. Comprehension
2. Interpersonal skills which include communication skills
3. Logical reasoning & analytical ability
4. Decision making & problem solving
5. General mental ability
6. Basic numeracy(Class X level), Data Interpretation(Class X level)
7. English language comprehension skills (Class X level)

Mains for UPSC Civil Services Exam (conventional essay type questions)

The number of candidates to be allowed in the Main Examination will be about twelve to thirteen times the total approximate number of vacancies for various Services and Posts for the year.

Paper-A (Qualifying Paper)

(One of the Indian Language to be selected by the candidate from the Languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution). (300 Marks)

Paper-B (Qualifying Paper)

• English (300 Marks)

Papers to be counted for Merit :

Paper-I

• Essay (250 Marks)

Paper-II

• General Studies–I (250Marks ) (Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society)

Paper-III

• General Studies –II (250 Marks) (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations)

Paper-IV

• General Studies –III (250 Marks) (Technology, Economic Development, Bio-diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management)

Paper-V

• General Studies –IV ( 250 Marks) (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude)

Paper-VI & Paper-VII

• Optional Subject – Paper I (250 Marks)
• Optional Subject – Paper II (250 Marks)

Total marks (Mains) - 1750 Marks

Marks obtained by the candidates for all paper (Paper I – VII) will be counted for merit ranking. However the Commission will have the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all papers of the examination. The number of candidates to be summoned for interview will be about twice the number of vacancies to be filled.

Interview- 275 Marks (with no minimum qualifying marks)

Grand Total - 2025 Marks (1750 + 275) Marks

Marks thus obtained by the candidates in the Main Examination as well as interview would determine final ranking.

Candidates will be posted to various posts and services keeping in view their merit ranking in the examination and the preferences expressed by them for the various Services and Posts in the Mains examination form.

Specially Designed for Under Graduates & Freshers

You will find each and everything under the platform of iasexamportal. You don’t need to read or buy any other material except this.

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NCERT Social Science Question Paper (Class-9)

(Political Science) Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World

Question 1: Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?

(a) Struggle by the people
(b) Invasion by foreign countries
(c) End of colonialism
(d) People’s desire for freedom

Question 2: Which of the following statements is true about today’s world?

(a) Monarchy as a form of government has vanished.
(b) The relationship between different countries has become more democraticever before.
(c) In more and more countries rulers are being elected by the people.
(d) There are no more military dictators in the world.

Question 3: Use one of the following statements to complete the sentence: Democracy in the international organisations requires that …

(a) The rich countries should have a greater say.
(b) Countries should have a say according to their military power.
(c) Countries should be treated with respect in proportion to their population.
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.

Question 4: Based on the information given in this chapter, match the following countries anpath democracy has taken in that country.

Question 6: Which freedoms are usually taken away when a democracy is overthrown bmilitary?

Question 7: Which of the following positions can contribute to democracy at the global level? Give reasons for your answer in each case.

(a) My country gives more money to international institutions. Therefore, I want to be treated with more respect and exercise more power.
(b) My country may be small or poor. But my voice must be heard with equal respect, because these decisions will affect my country.
(c) Wealthy nations will have a greater say in international affairs. They cannot let their interests suffer just because they are outnumbered by poor nations.
(d) Big countries like India must have a greater say in international organisations.

Question 8: Here are three opinions heard in a television debate on the struggle for democracy inNepal. Which of these do you agree with and why?

Guest 1: India is a democracy. Therefore, the Indian government must support thpeople of Nepal who are struggling against monarchy and for democracy.
Guest 2: That is a dangerous argument. We would be in the same position as the USwas in Iraq. Remember, no outside force can promote democracy.
Guest 3: But why should we bother about the internal affairs of another countryWe should be worried about our business interests there, not about democracy.

Question 9: In an imaginary country called Happyland, the people overthrew the foreign ruler and brought back the old royal family. They said: “After all their ancestors were our kings before foreigners started ruling us. It is good that we have one strong ruler, who can help us become rich and powerful”. When someone talked about democracy the wise men said it is a foreign idea. Their struggle was to throw the foreigners and their ideas out of the country. When someone demanded freedom for the media, the elders thought that too much criticism of the ruler would not help them improve their living standards. “After all, the king is so kind and interested in the welfare of all the subjects. Why create problems for him. Don’t we all want to be happy?” After reading the above passage, Chaman, Champa and Chandru made the following observations. Chaman: Happyland is a democratic country because people were able to throw out the foreign rulers and bring back the king. Champa: Happyland is not a democratic country because people cannot criticise the ruler. The king may be nice and may provide economic prosperity, but a king cannot

give a democratic rule. Chandru: What people need is happiness. So they are willing to allow their new ruler to take decisions for them. If people are happy it must be a democracy. What is your opinion about each of these statements? What do you think about the form of government in this country?

(Political Science) Chapter 2 What is Democracy Why Democracy

Question 1: Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how woyou classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sagainst each of these.

(a) Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not havright to vote
(b) Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty yea(c) Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections
(d) Country D: There is no independent election commission

Question 2: Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.

(a) Country P: The parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the consent of the Chief of Army
(b) Country Q: The parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the judiciary
(c) Country R: The country’s leaders cannot sign any treaty with another country without taking permission from its neighbouring country.
(d) Country S: All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by officials of the central bank which the ministers cannot change.

Question 3: Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy? Why?

(a) People feel free and equal in a democracy
(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others
(c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people
(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others

Question 4: Each of these statements contains a democratic and an undemocratic element. Write out the two separately for each statement.

(a) A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the parliament in order to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation.
(b) The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency where large scale rigging was reported.
(c) Women’s representation in the parliament has never reached 10 per cent. This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.

Question 5: Which of these is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a democratic country?

(a) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.
(b) Free press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.
(c) Government fears its defeat in the next elections.
(d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.

Question 6: There are 40 villages in a district where the government has made no provision fordrinking water. These villagers met and considered many methods of forcing thegovernment to respond to their need. Which of these is not a democratic method?

(a) Filing a case in the courts claiming that water is part of right to life.
(b) Boycotting the next elections to give a message to all parties.
(c) Organising public meetings against government’s policies.
(d) Paying money to government officials to get water.

Question 7: Write a response to the following arguments against democracy.

(a) Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country. Therefore army should rule the country.
(b) Rule of the majority means the rule of ignorant people. What we need is the rule of the wise, even if they are in small numbers.
(c) If we want religious leaders to guide us in spiritual matters, why not invite them to guide us in politics as well. The country should be ruled by religious leaders.

Question 8: Are the following statements in keeping with democracy as a value? Why?

(a) Father to daughter: I don’t want to hear your opinion about your marriage. Inour family children marry where the parents tell them to.
(b) Teacher to student: Don’t disturb my concentration by asking me questions inthe classroom.
(c) Employee to the officer: Our working hours must be reduced according to thelaw.

Question 9:  Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it ademocracy. Give reasons to support your decision.

(a) All the citizens of the country have right to vote Elections are held regularly.
(b) The country took loan from international agencies. One of the conditions forgiven loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education andhealth.
(c) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in onelanguage, the language spoken by 52 percent people of the country.
(d) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nation wide strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.
(e) The government owns the radio and television in the country. All the newspapers have to get permission from the government to publish any news about government’s policies and protests.

Question 10: In 2004 a report published in USA pointed to the increasing inequalities in thatcountry. Inequalities in income reflected in the participation of people in democracy...

(Political Science) Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

Question 1: Here are some false statements. Identify the mistake in each case and rewrite these correctly based on what you have read in this chapter.

(a) Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether the country should be democratic or not after independence.
(b) Members of the Constituent Assembly of India held the same views on all provisions of the Constitution.
(c) A country that has a constitution must be a democracy.
(d) Constitution cannot be amended because it is the supreme law of a country.

Question 2: Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa?

(a) Between South Africa and its neighbours
(b) Between men and women
(c) Between the white majority and the black minority
(d) Between the coloured minority and the black majority

Question 3: Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?

(a) Powers of the head of the state
(b) Name of the head of the state
(c) Powers of the legislature
(d) Name of the country

Question 4: Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution:

Question 5: Read again the extracts from Nehru's speech “Tryst with Destiny” and answer the following:

(a) Why did Nehru use the expression “not wholly or in full measure” in the first sentence?
(b) What pledge did he want the makers of the Indian Constitution to take?
(c) “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye”. Who was he referring to?

Question 6: Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and their meaning. Rewrite them by matching them correctly.

Question 7: A friend from Nepal has written you a letter describing the political situation there. Many political parties are opposing the rule of the king. Some of them say that the existing constitution given by the monarch can be amended to allow more powers to elected representatives. Others are demanding a new Constituent Assembly to write a republican constitution. Reply to your friend giving your opinions on the subject.

Question 8: Here are different opinions about what made India a democracy. How much importance would you give to each of these factors?

(a) Democracy in India is a gift of the British rulers. We received training to work with representative legislative institutions under the British rule.
(b) Freedom struggle challenged the colonial exploitation and denial of different freedoms to Indians. Free India could not be anything but democratic.
(c) We are lucky to have leaders who had democratic convictions. The denial of democracy in several other newly independent countries shows the important role of these leaders.

Question 9: Read the following extract from a conduct book for ‘married women’, published in 1912. ‘God has made the female species delicate and fragile both physically and emotionally, pitiably incapable of self-defence. They are destined thus by God to remain in male protection − of father, husband and son − all their lives. Women should, therefore, not despair, but feel obliged that they can dedicate themselves to the service of men’. Do you think the values expressed in this para reflected the values underlying our constitution? Or does this go against the constitutional values?

Question 10: Read the following statements about a constitution. Give reasons why each of these is true or not true.

(a) The authority of the rules of the constitution is the same as that of any other law.
(b) Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.
(c) Rights of citizens and limits on the power of the government are laid down in the constitution.
(d) A constitution is about institutions, not about values.

(Political Science) Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

Question 1: Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?

(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.
(b) People select the representative of their choice in an election.
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary.
(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer.

Question 2: Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.

Question 3: Match the following:

Question 4: List all the different election related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities are given below: releasing election manifestos; counting of votes; making of voters’ list; election campaign; declaration of election results; casting of votes; ordering of re-poll; announcing election schedule; filing nomination.

Question 5: Surekha is an officer in-charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what should she focus on for each of the following stages of election:

(a) Election campaign
(b) Polling day
(c) Counting day

Question 6: The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidateswho won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of thesecommunities in the population of the US. Based on this, would you suggest a systemof reservations in the US Congress? If yes, why and for which communities? If no,why not.

Question 7: Can we draw the following conclusions from the information given in this chapter? Give two facts to support your position for each of these.

(a) Election Commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country.
(b) There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country.
(c) It is very easy for the party in power to win an election.
(d) Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair.

Question 8: Chinappa was convicted for torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections?

Question 9: Here are some reports of electoral malpractices from different parts of the world. Is there anything that these countries can learn from India to improve their elections? What would you suggest in each case?

(a) During an election in Nigeria, the officer in charge of counting votes deliberately increased the votes of one candidate and declared him elected. The court later found out that more than five lakh votes cast for one candidate were counted in favour of
another.
(b) Just before elections in Fiji, a pamphlet was distributed warning voters that a vote for former Prime Minisiter, Mahendra Chaudhry will lead to bloodshed. This was a threat to voters of India origin.
(c) In the US, each state has its own method of voting, its own procedure of counting and its own authority for conducting elections. Authorities in the state of Florida took many controversial decisions that favoured Mr. Bush in the presidential elections in 2000. But no one could change those decisions.

Question 10: Here are some reports of malpractices in Indian elections. Identify what the problem in each case is. What should be done to correct the situation?

(a) Following the announcement of elections, the minister promised to provide financial aid to reopen the closed sugar mill.
(b) Opposition parties alleged that their statements and campaign was not given due attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio.
(c) An inquiry by the Election Commission showed that electoral rolls of a state contain name of 20 lakh fake voters.
(d) The hoodlums of a political party were moving with guns, physically preventing supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of other parties.

Question 11: Ramesh was not in class when this chapter was being taught. He came the next day and repeated what he had heard from his father. Can you tell Ramesh what is wrong with these statements?

(a) Women always vote the way men tell them to. So what is the point of giving them the right to vote?
(b) Party politics creates tension in society. Elections should be decided by consensus not by competition.
(c) Only graduates should be allowed to stand as candidates for elections.

(Political Science) Chapter 5 Working of Institutions

Question 1: If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decisions can you take on your own?

(a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok Sabha.
(c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers.

Question 2: Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

(a) District Collector
(b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Home Minister
(d) Director General of Police

Question 3: Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?

(a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court.
(b) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the Constitution.
(c) Judiciary is independent of the Executive.
(d) Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated

Question 4: Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?

(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

Question 5: Match the ministry with the news that the ministry may have released:

Question 6: Of all the institutions that we have studied in this chapter, name the one thatexercises the powers on each of the following matters.

(a) Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigationetc. and different welfare activities for the citizens.
(b) Considers the recommendation of a Committee on a law to regulate the stockexchange.
(c) Decides on a legal dispute between two state governments.
(d) Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake.

Question 7: Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Choose the most appropriate answer and give reasons for your choice.

(a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.
(b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers even before the expiry of their term.
(c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by the President there is no need for it.
(d) Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve lot of expenditure on election.

Question 8: Three friends went to watch a film that showed the hero becoming Chief Minister for a day and making big changes in the state. Imran said this is what the country needs. Rizwan said this kind of a personal rule without institutions is dangerous. Shankar said all this is a fantasy. No minister can do anything in one day. What would be your reaction to such a film?

Question 9: A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option: Each one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you. Which one would you choose and why?

Question 10: After reading the example of the reservation order, three students had different reactions about the role of the judiciary. Which view, according to you, is a correct reading of the role of judiciary?

(a) Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not independent.
(b) Anjaiah says that judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.
(c) Vijaya thinks that the judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those who supported and those who opposed the order.

(Political Science) Chapter 6 Democratic Rights

Question 1: Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?

(a) Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and women government employees get the same salary
(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children

Question 2: Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?

(a) Freedom to criticise the government
(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution

Question 3: Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Right to work
(b) Right to adequate livelihood
(c) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to privacy

Question 4: Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls:

(a) Freedom to propagate one’s religion
(b) Right to life
(c) Abolition of untouchability
(d) Ban on bonded labour

Question 5: Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference.

(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.

Question 6: Are these restrictions on the right to freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.

(a) Indian citizens need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of security.
(b) Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population.
(c) The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections.

Question 7: Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position”. Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance? Spell these out in a letter from Manoj to the district collector.

Question 8: When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her. "You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o Α. K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao." She did not agree. She said "If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?" In your opinion who is right in this dispute? And why?

Question 9:  Thousands of tribals and other forest dwellers gathered at Piparia in Hoshangabad district in Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from the Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs. Government claims that their displacement is essential for the development of the area and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC, a response from the government and a report of the NHRC on this matter.

Question 10: Draw a web interconnecting different rights discussed in this chapter. For example right to freedom of movement is connected to the freedom of occupation. One reason for this is that freedom of movement enables a person to go to place of work within one’s village or city or to another village, city or state. Similarly this right can be used for pilgrimage, connected with freedom to follow one’s religion. Draw a circle for each right and mark arrows that show connection between or among different rights. For each arrow, give an example that shows the linkage.

(Geography) Chapter 1 India - Size and Location

Problem 1. Choose the right

(i) Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Tripura

Solution : (b)

(ii) The easternmost longitude of India is

(a) 97° 25′ E
(b) 68° 7′ E
(c) 77° 6′ E
(d) 82° 32′ E

Solution : (a)

(iii) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontier with

(a) China
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) Myanmar

Solution : (c)

(iv) If you intended to visit Kavaratti during your summer vacations, which one of the following Union Territories of India will you be going to?

(a) Puducherry
(b) Lalcshadweep
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal

Solution : (b)

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.

(a) Bhutan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Tajikistan
(d) Nepal

Solution : (b)

Problem 2. the followings briefly.

(i) Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.

Solution : Lakshadweep Islands lie in the Arabian Sea.

(ii) Name the countries which are larger than India.

Solution : Russia, Canada, USA. China, Australia and Brazil are the countries that are larger than India.

(iii) Which island group of India lies to its South-East?

Solution : Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie to the South-East of India.

(iv) Which island countries are our Southern neighbours?

Solution : Sri Lanka and Maldives are the two island countries that are the Southern neighbours of India.

Problem 3. The Sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the West but the watches show the same time. How does this happen?

Solution : From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours, but the watches show the same time because the time along the Standard Meridian of India (82 0 30′ E) passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh is taken as the standard time for the whole country. Because the same standard time for the whole country has been adopted, the watches show the same time in Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat and in all parts of the country.

Problem 4. The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?

Solution : The Indian landmass has a central location between East and West Asia. India is a southward extension of the Asian continent. The trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the West to the countries of East Asia provide a strategic central location to India. The Deccan peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the Western coast and South-East and East Asia from the Eastern coast. No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India has. Thus, India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean Justifies the naming of an ocean after it. Map Skills

Problem 1. Identify the following with the help of map reading.

(i) The island groups of India lying in the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.

Solution : Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(ii) The countries constituting the Indian Sub-continent.

Solution : Pakistan, Afghanistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar and Bangladesh.

(iii) The states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes.

Solution : Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Paschim Banga, Tripura and Mizoram.

(iv) The northernmost latitude in degrees.

Solution : 37° 6’N

(v) The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees.

Solution : 8° 4’N

(vi) The eastern and the Westernmost longitude in degrees.

Solution : 68° 7’E and 97° 25’E

(vii) The place situated on the three seas.

Solution : Kanyakumari

(viii) The straight separating Sri Lanka from India.

Solution : Palk Strait

(ix) The Union Territories of India.

Solution : Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, Puducherry and Delhi. Project/Activity

(i) Find out the longitudinal and latitudinal extent of your state.

Solution : is given below My state is Uttar Pradesh longitudinally it extends from 77°4’E to 84°39’E. Latitudinally it extends from about 30 0 20’N to about 23°53’N.

(ii) Collect information about the ‘Silk Route Also find out the new developments which are improving communication routes in the regions of the high altitude.

Solution : (a) Do it yourself. It is given in your History book. Some information is given below

The Silk Road or Silk Route refers to a historical network of interlinking trade routes across the Afro-Eurasian landmass that connected East, South. and Western Asia with the Mediterranean and European world, as well as parts of North and East Africa.

The land routes were supplemented by sea routes, which extended from the Red Sea to coastal India, China and South-East Asia.

Extending 4,000 miles (6,500 km), the Silk Road gets its name from the lucrative Chinese silk trade along it. which began during the Han Dynasty (206 BCE – 220 CE). The central Asian sections of the trade routes were expanded around 114 BCE by the Han dynasty largely through the missions and explorations of Zhang Qian, but earlier trade routes across the continents already existed.

In the late Middle Ages. transcontinental trade over the land routes of the Silk Road declined as sea trade increased. In recent years, both the maritime and overland Silk Routes are again being used, often closely following the ancient routes.

(b) Communication routes in regions of high altitude are now-a-days through helicopter (for closer distances) and through high altitude railways like the Ouinghai railway in China linking Lhasa (capital of Tibet) with the rest of the world. More information can be found on this railway from the internet.

(Geography) Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

Problem 1. Choose the right Solution from the four alternatives given below.

(i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides in referred to as

(a) coast
(b) island
(c) peninsula
(d) None of these

Solution : (c)

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as

(a) Himachal
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Purvanchal
(d) None of these

Solution : (c)

(iii) The Western coastal strip, South of Goa is referred to as

(a) Coromandel
(b) Konkan
(c) Kannad
(d) Northern Circar

Solution : (c)

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

(a) AnaMudi
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Khasi

Solution : (c)

Problem 2. the following Questions briefly

(i) What are tectonic plates ?

Solution : The convectional currents below the Earth’s crust split the crust into a number of pieces. These pieces are called tectonic plates. e.g., Eurasia plate, Indo Australian plate etc.

(ii) Which continents of today were part of the Gondwanaland ?

Solution : The Gondwana land included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single land mass.

(iii) What is the Bhabar?

Solution : Bhabar is a narrow belt of land about 8 to 16 km wide and covered with pebbles deposited by the rivers and lying parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks

(iv) Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south.

Solution : The 3 major divisions of the Himalayas from North to South are as folloWS

(a) The Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri It is a continuous range consisting of the highest peaks.
(b) Himachal or Lesser Himalayas The range lying to the South of the Himadri is known as Himachal or Lesser Himalayas.
(c) Shiwaliks The outermost range of the Himalayas is known as the Shiwaliks. These are the foothill ranges and represent the southernmost division of the Himalayas.

(v) Which plateaus lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhyan ranges?

Solution : Malwa plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhyan ranges.

(vi) Name of the Island group of India having coral Vindhyan

Solution : Lakshadweep Islands are composed of small coral islands.

Problem 3. Distinguish between

(i) Converging and diverging tectonic plates.

Solution : Difference between Converging plates and Diverging plates

(ii) Bhangar and Khadar.

Solution : Differences between Bhangar and Khadar

(iii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.

Solution : Difference between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.

Problem 4. Describe how the Himalayas were formed.

Solution :

(a) The oldest landmass of India (peninsular part) was a part of Gondwana land.
(b) Gondwana land included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single landmass.
(c) Convectional currents split the crust into a number of pieces, thereby leading to the drifting of the Indo – Australian plate after being separated from the Gondwana land towards the North.
(d) The Northward drift resulted in the collision of the plate with the much larger Eurasian plate.
(e) Due to this collision the sedimentary rocks which were accumulated in the geosyncline known as the Tethys, were folded to form the mountain systems of Western Asia and Himalaya.
(f) The Himalayas represent a youthful topography with high peaks, deep valleys and fast following rivers.

Problem 5. Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular plateau.

Solution : The major physiographic divisions of India are

The Himalayan mountains
The Northern plains
The Peninsular plateau
The Indian desert
The Coastal plains
The islands

Contrast between the Himalayan region and the Peninsular plateau

Problem 6. Give an account of the Northern plains of India.

Solution : (a) The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys sea and subsidence of the Northern flank of the peninsular plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. In course of time, this depression gradually got filled with deposition of sediments from rivers flowing from the mountains In the north and led to formation of the fertile Northern plains.
(b) It spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq km. The plain IS about 2400 km long and 240-230 km broad
(c) It is a densely populated and an Intensively cultivated area.
(d) With Its adequate water supply and favourable climate, It is agriculturally a very productive part of India
(e) The Northern plains are broadly divided into 3 sections.
(f) The Western part of the Northern plans IS called the Punjab plains, formed by the Indus and its tributaries.
(g) The Ganga plain extends between the Ghaggar and the Teesta rivers, spread over the states of Haryana, Delhi, UP Bihar and West Bengal.
(h) The Brahmaputra Plain to the East of the Ganga plains lies the Brahmaputra plain covering the areas of Assam and Arunachal
Pradesh

Problem 7. Write short notes on the following

(i) The Indian Desert
(ii) The Central Highlands
(iii) The Island Groups of India

Solution : (i) The Indian Desert
The Indian desert lies towards the Western margin of the Aravalli hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
This region receives very low rainfall, below 150 mm per year. It has arid climate with low vegetation cover. Streams appear during the rainy season. Soon they disappear into the sand as they do not have enough water to reach the sea. Luni is the only large river in this region. Barchan (Crescent shaped dunes) cover the larger areas but longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo – Pakistan border.
The Indian desert is popularly known as the Thar desert.

(ii) The Central Highlands The Peninsular plateau consists of two broad divisions, namely the central highlands and the Deccan plateau.
The part of the Peninsular plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river covering a major area of the Malwa plateau is known as the Central Highlands.
They are bound by the Vindhya Range from the south and by the Aravalli hills from the north-west.
The further westward extension gradually merges with the sandy and rocky desert of Rajasthan.
The flow of the rivers draining this region, namely the Chambal, the Sind, the Betwe and Ken is from south-west to north-east.
The central highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the east.
The eastward extensions of their plateau are locally known as ‘Bundelkhand’ and Baghelkhand.
The Chhotanagpur plateau marks the further eastward extension drained by the Damodar river.

(iii) The Island Groups of India India has two groups of islands namely the Lakshadweep group and the Andaman and Nicobar group.

(a) The Lakshadweep Islands Group lie close to the Malabar coast of Kerala.
These islands are composed of small coral islands.
Earlier, they were known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive. In 1973, these were renamed as the Lakshadweep.
They cover a small area of 32 sq km.
Kavaratti Island is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep.
This island group has a great diversity of flora and fauna.
The Pitti Island, which is uninhabited, has a bird sanctuary.

(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
The elongated chain of islands located in the Bay of Bengal extending from north to south are the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
They are bigger in size and more numerous and scattered than the Lakshadweep Islands.
The entire group of islands is divided into two broad categories, the Andaman in the north and Nicobar in the south.
It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of the submarine mountains.
These islands are of great – strategic importance for the country.
They have great diversity of flora and fauna.
These islands lie close to the equator experience equatorial climate and have thick forest cover.

Project / Activity

Locate the peaks, passes, ranges, plateaus hills and duns hidden in the puzzle.
Try to find where these features are located. You may start your search horizontally vertically or diagonally.

Solution :

• Horizontally the features ale

• Nathula

• Cardamom

• Garo

• Kanchenjunga

• Anamudi

• Everest

• Patli

• Vertically the features are

• Chottanagpur

• Aravali

• Konkan

• Jaintia

• Malwa

• Nilgirl

• Shipki La

• Vindhya

• Bomdila

• Sahyadri

• Satpura (this one is from bottom to top)

(Geography)  Chapter 3 Drainage

Problem 1. Choose the right Solution from the four alternatives given below

(i) Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns resembling the branches of a tree?

(a) Radial
(b) Dendritic
(c) Centrifugal
(d) Trellis

Solution (b)

(ii) In which of the following states is the Wular Lake located ?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Solution (d)

(iii) The river Narmada has its source as

(a) Satpura
(b) Amarkantak
(c) Brahmagiri
(d) Slopes of the Western Ghats

Solution (b)

(iv) Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?

(a) Sambhar
(b) Wular
(c) Dal
(d) Gobind Sagar

Solution (a)

(v) Which one of the following is the longest river of peninsular India?

(a) Narmada
(b) Krishna
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi

Solution (c)

(vii) Which one amongst the following rivers flow through a Rift Valley?

(a) Mahanadi
(b) Krishna
(c) Tungabhadra
(d) Tapi

Solution (d)

Problem 2. Solution the following Problem s briefly.

(i) What is meant by a water divide? Give an example

Solution Any elevated area such as a mountain or an upland that separate two drainage basins is called a water divide. An example are the Western Ghats.

(ii) Which is the largest river basin in India?

Solution The Ganga Basin is the largest river basin in India.

(iii) Where do the rivers Indus and Ganga have their origin?

Solution The river Indus rises in Tibet. near lake Mansarovar. and the Ganga originates at the Gangotri Glacier. Both of them have their origin in the Himalayas.

(iv) Name the two headstreams of the Ganga. Where do they meet to form the Ganga?

Solution The two head streams of the Ganga are the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda. They meet at Devprayag in Uttarakhand to form the Ganga.

(v) Why does the Brahmaputra in its Tibetan part have less silt, despite a longer course?

Solution In TIbet. the river Indus known as Tsang Po carries a smaller volume of water and less silt as it is a cold and dry area.
In India. the river carries a large volume of water and considerable amount of silt because it passes through a region of high rainfall.

(vi) Which two peninsular rivers flow through a trough ?

Solution Narmada and Tapi are two peninsular rivers, which flow through a trough.

(vii) State some economic benefits of rivers and lakes.

Solution
Lakes
Lakes are of a great value to human beings.
Lakes help to regulate the flow of rivers.
Lakes help to prevent flooding during rainy season.
During the dry season, lakes help to maintain an even flow of water.
Lakes can also be used for developing hydel power.
They moderate the climate of the surroundings and maintain the aquatic ecosystem.
They enhance natural beauty and help to develop tourism and provide recreation. e.g., Dal Lake and Naini Lake at Nainital.
Lakes provide opportunities for fishery development.

Rivers

They help to develop hydel power.
They provide water for irrigation, for drinking and other requirements.
They help to develop fisheries.

(Geography) Chapter 4 Climate

Problem 1. Choose the correct Solution from the four alternatives given below

(i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?

(a) Silchar
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Guwahati

Solution : (b)

(ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as

(a) Kaal Baisakhi
(b) Loo
(c) Trade Winds
(d) None of these

Solution : (b)

(iii) Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?

(a) Cyclonic depression
(b) Western disturbances
(c) Retreating monsoon
(d) Southwest monsoon

Solution : (a)

(iv) Monsoon arrives in India approximately

(a) early May
(b) early July
(c) early June
(d) early August

Solution : (c)

(v) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?

(a) Warm days and warm nights
(b) Warm days and cold nights
(c) Cool days and cold nights
(d) Cool days and warm nights

Solution : (b)

Problem 2. Solution the following Problems briefly.

(i) What are the controls affecting the climate of India?

Solution : There are six major controls of the climate of any place. They are latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system, distance from the sea (continentality), ocean currents and relief features.

(ii) Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?

Solution : The monsoon winds play an important role in the climate of India. Therefore, it is called the monsoon type of climate.

(iii) Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?

Solution : The north-western part of India experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature. In the Thar desert, the day temperature may rise to 50 0 e and drop down to near 15°e the same night. On the other hand, there is hardly any difference in day and night temperatures in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands or in Kerala .

(iv) Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast?

Solution : The south west monsoon winds are responsible for the rainfall along the Malabar coast.

(v) What are jet streams and how do they affect the climate of India?

Solution : Jet streams are a narrow belt of high altitude (above 12000 m) westerly winds in the troposphere.

(a) Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter.
(b) A number of separate jet streams have been identified.
(c) The most constant are the mid latitude and subtropical jet streams.
(d) Jet streams over the Indian peninsula during the summer affect the monsoon.
(e) The subtropical westerly jet stream blow south of the Himalayas and is responsible for the western cyclonic disturbances experienced in the north and north western parts of the country.
(f) An easterly jet stream blows over peninsular India. It affects the coastal regions of the country and is responsible for tropical cyclones during the monsoon as well as during the October to November period.

(vi) Define monsoons. What do you understand by ‘break’ in monsoon?

Solution : The monsoons are moisture laden winds from the southwest which bring heavy rainfall to southern Asia, in summer.

‘Break’ in monsoon means that the monsoon has alternate wet and dry spells. This means that the monsoon rains take place for a few days at a time. These wet spells are interspersed with dry spells related to the movement of the monsoon trough.

(vii) Why is monsoon considered a unifying bond?

Solution : The seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons.

Monsoon rains are unevenly distributed and typically uncertain. The Indian landscape, plant and animal life, agriculture, the people and their festivities, all revolve around the monsoon.

All the Indian people eagerly await the arrival of the monsoon. It binds the whole country by providing water which sets all agricultural activities in motion. That is why the monsoon is considered a unifying bond.

Problem 3. Why does rainfall decrease from the east to the west in northern India?

Solution : Rainfall decreases from the east to the west in Northern India because there is a decrease in the moisture of the winds. As the moisture bearing winds of the Bay of Bengal branch of the south west monsoon move further and further inland, the moisture gradually decreases and results in low rainfall when moving westwards. Consequently, states like Gujarat and Rajasthan in western India get very little rainfall.

Problem 3. Give reasons as to why

(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent.
(ii) The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought prone.

Solution :
(i) During winter, there is a high pressure area north of the Himalayas. Cold winds blow from this region to the low pressure areas over the oceans to the south.

(a) In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over north-western India.
(b) This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.


(ii) In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over north western India

(a) This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer. Air moves from the high pressure area over the southern Indian ocean, crosses the equator and turns right towards the low pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent
(b) These are known as the south-west monsoon winds
(c) These winds blow over warm oceans, gather moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India
(d) The duration of the monsoon is between 100-120 days from early June to mid September. Thus, we can say that rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.

(iii) During the winter season, -the north-west trade winds prevail over the country. They blow from land to sea and hence for most part of the country it is a dry season. Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as here they blow from sea to land.

(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones because the cyclonic depressions which originate over the Andaman Sea generally cross the Eastern coasts of India and cause heavy and widespread rain.

(a) These cyclones are often very destructive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri are frequently struck by cyclones which cause great damage to life and property.
(b) Sometimes these cyclones arrive at the coasts of Odisha, West Bangal and Bangladesh.

(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought prone because they receive scanty rainfall. Even during the monsoon months the monsoon winds when rising over the Western Ghats give rain to that area. By the time they reach Rajasthan and Gujarat there is very less moisture left in these winds and so these areas are drought prone.

Problem 4. Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.

Solution : There are regional variations in the climatic conditions of India which can be understood with the help of the following examples

(a) The months of December and January are the coldest in Northern India where the temperature ranges between 10°-15°.
(b) In summer, the mercury occasionally touches 50°C in some parts of the Rajasthan desert, whereas it might be around 2O°C in pahalgam In Jammu and Kashmir.
(c) On a winter night temperature at Drass in Jammu and Kashmir may be as low as minus 40″C. Tiruvananthapuram on the other hand may have a temperature of 22° C.
(d) Annual precipitation varies from over 400 em in Meghalaya to less than 10 cm in Ladakh and western Rajasthan. In the Himalayas precipitation is in the form of snowfall.
(e) Coastal region does not experience much variation in temperature pattern due to the moderating influence of the sea.

Problems 5. Discuss the mechanism of monsoon.

Solution : The climate of India is described as the monsoon type

(a) The factors affecting the climate of an area are latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system distance from the sea
(b) Pressure and surface winds, and relief features
(c) India lies in the region of north-easterly winds. These winds originate from the subtropical high pressure belt in the northern hemisphere, get deflected to the right due to the coriolls force and move on towards the equatorial low pressure area.
(d) In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia andnorth-western India. This causes complete reversal of the direction of the winds during summer. Air moves from the high pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean, crosses the equator and turns right towards the low pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent. These are known as the south-west monsoon winds. These winds blow over the warm oceans, gather moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.
(e) The upper air circulation in this region is dominated by a westerly flow.
(f) The duration of the monsoon is between 100-120 days from early June to mid September
(g) The Southern Oscillation (SO) and jet streams also affects the monsoon.Withdrawal or Retreat of Monsoon The withdrawal or retreat of the monsoon begins in the states of India by early September. By mid October, it withdraws completely from the northern half of the peninsula. By December, the monsoon has withdrawn from the rest of the country.

Problem 6. Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.

Solution : The cold weather season begins from the November in northern India and stays till February. December and January are the coldest onths in the northern part of India.

(a) The weather is normally marked by clear sky, low temperatures, low humidity and feeble variable winds
(b) Days are warm and nights are cold. Frost is common in the north and higher slopes of the Himalayas experience snowfall
(c) During this season, the north-east trade winds blow from land to sea and hence for most parts of the country it is a dry season. Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as they blow there from sea to land
(d) A characteristic feature of the cold weather season over the northern plains is the inflow of cyclonic disturbances from the west and the north-west. The low pressure systems originate over the Mediterranean Sea and Western Asia and move into India along with the westerly flow. They cause the much needed winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains
(e) Although, the total amount of winter rainfall locally known as ‘Mahawat’ is small, it is of immense importance for the cultivation of ‘rabi’ crops
(f) The peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season. There is hardly any noticeable change in temperature pattern during winter due to the moderating influence of the sea.

Problem 2.

(i) Name two rainiest stations.

Solution : Shillong and Mumbai.

(ii) Name two driest stations.

Solution : Leh and Jodhpur.

(iii) Name two stations with most equable climate.

Solution : Thiruvanantapuram and Mumbai.

(iv) Name two stations with most extreme climate.

Solution : Leh and Jodhpor.

(v) Name two stations most influenced by the Arabian branch of south-west monsoons.

Solution : Mumbai and Thiruvanantapuram.

(vi) Name two stations most influenced by the Bay of Bengal branch of south-west monsoons.

Solution : Shillong and Kolkata.

(vii) Name two stations influenced by both branches of the south-west monsoons.

Solution : Delhi and Nagpur.

(viii) Name two stations influenced by retreating and north-east monsoons.

Solution : Thiruvanantapuram and Chennai

(ix) Name two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances.

Solution : Delhi and Kolkata.

(x) Name two hottest stations in the months of

(a) February
(b) April
(c) May
(d) June

Solution :

(a) Thiruvanantapuram and Chennai.
(b) Nagpur and Chennai.
(c) Nagpur and Delhi I Jodhpur.
(d) Jodhpur and Delhi.

Problem 3. Now find out

(i) Why are Thiruvanantapuram and Shillong rainier in June than in July?

Solution : They are rainier in June as the monsoon’s arrival occurs in both places in June and the initial impact of the monsoon is an intense period of heavy rain.

(ii) Why is July rainier in Mumbai than in Thiruvanantapuram?

Solution : The monsoon reaches Mumbai about 10 days after Thiruvanantapuram and so the initial impact- of the monsoon continues into the next month. After the first initial downpour the monsoon falls into a steady pattern of raining for at least a couple of hours most days. So, it reduces in Thiruvanantapuram earlier than in Mumbai.

(iii) Why are south-west monsoons less rainy in Chennai?

Solution : Chennai doesn’t receive much rain during the south-west monsoon, as the south of India (the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala) gets most of its rainfall from the north-east monsoon, from October to December.

(iv) Why is Shillong rainier than Kolkata?

Solution : Shillong is in a hilly area and the hills trap the monsoon winds, so that Shillong becomes rainier than Kolkata.

(v) Why is Kolkata rainier in July than in June unlike Shillong which is rainier in June than in July?

Solution : The monsoon reaches Shillong earlier than Kolkata (refer to the ‘Advancing Monsoon’ map in your textbook) and the initial impact is heavier than the later showers. So, Shillong is rainier in June while Kolkata is rainier in July.

(vi) Why does Delhi receive more rain than Jodhpur?

Solution :  Jodhpur is on the edge of the Thar Desert and by the time the monsoon winds reach it, most of their moisture is finished. Delhi is more east than Jodhpur and so it receives more rainfall.

Problem 4. Now think why

(i) Thiruvanantapuram has equable climate?

Solution :  Thiruvanantapuram has equable climate because of two reasons.

(a) It is on the sea coast. The moderating influence of the sea makes the climate equable.
(b) It is near to the equator. At the equator, all the seasons have similar temperatures and so this makes the climate equable.

(ii) Chennai has more rains only after the fury of monsoon is over in most parts of the country?

Solution : Chennai receives most of its rainfall from the north-east monsoon, which gives rains mostly from October to December, and not the south-west monsoon. That is why Chennai gets most of its rainfall later than most other parts of the country.

(iii) Jodhpur has a hot desert type of climate?

Solution : Jodhpur is in the extreme western part of India and so, when the monsoon winds reach it, they have exhausted their moisture. Further it is on the edge of the Thar Desert. That is why it has a hot desert type of climate.

(iv) Leh has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year?

Solution : Leh is in the ‘cold desert’ called Ladakh, which is a valley in between two mountain ranges. No monsoon winds are able to reach it. That is why it has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year.

(v) While in Delhi and Jodhpur most of the rain is confined to nearly three months, in Thlruvanantapuram and Shillong it is almost nine months of the year?

Solution : Thiruvanantapuram ison the sea coast and so it receives rainfall from both the southwest and north-east monsoons, besides receiving rainfall due to local disturbances which pick up moisture from the sea. Shillong is in a hilly area and so receives rain from the monsoon as well as from local disturbances which are trapped by the hills.

(vi) In spite of these facts see carefully if there are strong evidences to conclude that the monsoons still provide a very strong framework lending overall climatic unity to the whole country.

Solution : The seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons. Monsoon rains are unevenly distributed and typically uncertain. The Indian landscape, plant and animal life, agriculture, the people and their festivities, all revolve around the monsoon.

(Geography) Chapter 5 Nature Vegetation & Wildlife

Problem 1. Choose the right Solution from the four alternatives given below

(i) To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to ?

(a) Tundra
(b) Tidal
(c) Himalayan
(d) Tropical Evergreen

Solution : (d)

(ii) Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than

(a) 100 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 70 cm
(d) less than 50 cm

Solution : (a)

(iii) In which of the following states is the Simlipal bioReserve located ?

(a) Punjab
(b) Orissa
(c) Delhi
(d) west Bengal

Solution : (b)

(iv) Which one of the following bioreserves of India is not included in the world network of bioreserve?

(a) Manas
(b) Nilgiri
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Nanda Devi

Solution : (a)

Problem 2. anwser the following questions briefly Define an ecosystem.

Solution : All the plants and animals in an area are interdependent and interrelated to each other in their physical environment, thus forming an ecosystem. Human beings are also an integral part of the ecosystem. They utilise the vegetation and wild life.

What factors are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India?

Solution : The factors responsible for the distribution of plants (flora) and animals (fauna) in India are

(a) Relief factors
Land
oil

(b) Climate
Temperature
Precipitation
Photoperiod (sunlight)

(iii) What is a bioreserve? Give two examples

Solution : A bioreserve is an area in which the flora and fauna of the given country is protected and there are certain researches which are done on them. It is an area containing a wildlife preserve bordered by a buffer zone in which more frequent use is permitted to the public, established as a way of integrating habitat conservation with the interests of the local community.

Examples are Rajaji in Uttarakhand and Simlipal in Orissa.

(iv) Name two animals having habitat in tropical and montane type of vegetation.

Solution : Animals found in Tropical forests are lion. tiger. pig, deer and elephant.

Animals found in Montane forests are Kashmir stag, spotted deer, wild sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak, snow leopard, squirrels. shaggy horn wild ibex. bear and rare red panda, sheep and goats with thick hair.

Problem 4. Name the different types of vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high attitudes?

Solution : The following major types of vegetation are found in India

• Tropical Evergreen Forests

• Tropical Deciduous Forests

• Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrub

• Montane Forests

• Mangrove Forests

• Vegetation of High Altitude (Montane Forests)

In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to a corresponding change in natural vegetation.The wet temperate type of forests are found between a height of 1000 and 2000 metres, where evergreen broad leaf trees such as oaks and chestnuts predominate.Temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar are found between 1500 and 3000 metres. These forests cover mostly the southern slopes of the Himalayas, places having high altitudes in southern and north east India. Temperate grasslands are common at higher elevations.At high altitudes, generally more than 3,600 metres above sea level, alpine vegetation is found. Silver fir, jumpers, pines and birches are the common trees of these forests

Problem 5. Quite a few species of plants and animals are endangered in India? Why?

Solution: Many plants and animals in India are endangered because of the greediness of human beings for their commercial value. Humans are hunting animals for their skins, horns and hooves which are In demand and give a lot of profit.Deforestation on a wide scale destroys the habitat of animals and also leads to decline of the different species of trees and plants. Ecological balance is disturbed due to deforestation, which is harmful for both flora and fauna.

Project / Activity

• Find some trees in your neighbourhood having medicinal values.

• Find ten occupations getting raw material from forests and wild life.

• Write a poem or paragraph showing the importance of wild life.

• Write the script of a street play giving the importance of tree plantation and try to enact it in your locality.

• Plant a tree either on your birthday or one of your family member’s birthday.

• Note the growth of the tree and notice in which season it grows faster.

Solution :Some trees having medicinal values are (there are many others) Amla Plant or Indian Gooseberry This is one of the richest sources of Vitamin C. It is a medium size deciduous plant, which attains a height of 8 to 18 meters. Amla is used to make herbal products, which helps get rid of health-related questions like hair fall, haemorrhage, leucorrhoea, skin diseases and discharge of blood from uterus.

Neem Tree It plays a significant role in Ayurvedic medicine. It helps to treat chickenpox, fever, skin disease and headache

Eucalyptus It is a tall tree, with heights upto 100 metres. Oil taken out of the Eucalyptus leaves has great medicinal value. It helps in purifying blood and lowering of blood sugar level. It cures questions of asthma, bronchitis, cardiac questions and fungal Infections.

Occupations getting following raw materials from forests and wildlife

• Carpentry

• Rubber industry

• Leather industry

• Ayurvedic medicine manufacturing

• Paper industry

• Glue industry

• Fruit and food production industry

• Hunting

• Resin extractor

• Perfume Industry

Importance of Wildlife Wildlife comprises of the numerable varieties of wild plants, animals, fungi and microorganisms that exist on our planet Earth, rather than just cultivated plants and domesticated animals. We largely depend on this wildlife for every elementary requirement in our lite.

The food we eat, the clothes, we wear, the medicines we consume, a variety of building materials used for construction, numerous chemicals used for manufacturing our necessities, all are extracted from the wildlife existing around us. About 40,000 species of plants, animals, fungi and microscopic animals benefit us in some way or the other. The normal functioning of the biosphere depends on endless interactions amongst animals, plants, and microorganisms.

This, in turn, maintains and improves human life further. These ecological processes are vital for agriculture, forestry, fisheries and other processes that support human life. Besides, there are several biological. processes wherein wildlife plays a key role, such as pollinisation. germination, seed dispersal, soil generation, nutrient cycling, habitat maintenance, waste breakdown, and pest control.

Do it yourself.
Do it yourself.

(Geography) Chapter 6 Population

Problem 1. Choose the right Solution from the four alternatives given below

(i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in

(a) the area of departure
(b) the area of arrival
(c) Both the area of departure and arrival
(d) None of the abov

Solution (c)

(ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of

(a) high birth rates
(b) high life expectancies
(c) high death rates
(d) more married couples

Solution (a)

(iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to

(a) the total population of an area
(b) the number of persons added each year
(c) the number of females per thousand males
(d) the rate at which the population increases


Solution (b)

(iv) According to the census 2001, a ‘literate’ person is one who

(a) can read and write his/her name
(b) can read and write any language
(c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
(d) knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)

Solution (c)

Problem 2. Solution the following Problems briefly.

(i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?

Solution

Since 1981, the rate of growth started declining gradually, because of popularised.

(a) Family planning measures were adopted, leading to decline in the birth rate.
(b) Awareness about advantages of small family came to be recognised.
(c) There was a growth of nuclear families occured which adopted the small family norm.
(d) Promotion of family planning programme by the government.

(ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.

Solution The major components of population growth are birth rates, death rates and migration.

The natural increase of population is the difference between birth rates and death rates.

Birth Rate Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand person in a year. It is a major component of growth, because in India birth rates have always been higher than death rates.

Death Rate Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year. The main cause of the rate of growth of the Indian
population has been the rapid decline in death rates.

Migration Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries).

Internal migration does not change the size of the population, but influences the distribution of population within the nation.


(iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.


Solution Age Structure Age structure means the number of people in different age groups in a given population.


Death Rate Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons In a year.
Birth Rate Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year.


(iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?


Solution Migration a Determinant Factor

• Migration is the movement’ of people across regions and territories.

• Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries).

• Migration is a determinant factor of population change as it changes its size and composition.

• Internal migration does not change the size of the population but influences the distribution of population within the nation.

• In India, most migrations have been from rural to urban areas because of the ‘push’ factors in rural areas. These push factors are adverse conditions of

• poverty and unemployment in the rural areas. The ‘pull’ factors of the city are In terms of increased employment opportunities and better living conditions.

• These ‘push’ and ‘pull’ factors have led to increased migration from rural to urban areas and rapid rise in the urban population.

• There has been a significant increase in the number of ‘million plus cities’ from 25 to 35 in just one decade i.e., 1991-2001.

Problem 3. What is the relation between occupational structure and development?

Solution The distribution of the population according to the different types of occupations is referred to as the occupational structure.

• Occupations are generally classified as primary, secondary and tertiary.

• Primary activities include agriculture, animal husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining and quarrying, etc.

• Secondary activities include manufacturing industry, building and construction work, etc.

• Tertiary activities Include transport. communications, etc.

• The proportion of people working in different activities varies in developed and developing countries.

• Developed nations have a high proportion of people in secondary and tertiary activities.

• In India about 64% of the population Is engaged only in agriculture.

• The proportion of the population dependent on secondary and tertiary sectors is about 13 and 20% respectively.

• There has been an occupational shift in favour of secondary and tertiary sectors because of growing industrialisation and urbanisation in recent times.

Problem 4. What are the advantages of having a healthy population?

Solution Health is an important component of population composition


which affects the process of development. So we need a healthy population.

(a) The health of a person helps him/her to realise his/her potential and gives the ability to fight illness.
(b) A healthy person is an asset to the country, is more productive and helps in the progress of the country.
(c) A healthy person is able to earn more and Improve his standard of living.
(d) A healthy population makes a healthy and strong nation economically and socially.

Problem 5. What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?

Solution Aims/Objectives of National Population Policy 2000

• Imparting free and compulsory school education upto 14 years of age.

• Reducing infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.

• Achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.

• Promoting delayed marriage for girls.

• Making family welfare a people centered programme.

• Protection of adolescent girls from unwanted pregnancies.

• Protection of adolescents from Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD) and educating them about the risks of unprotected sex.

• Making contraceptive services ‘accessible and affordable.

• Providing food supplement and nutritional services.

• Strengthening legal measures to prevent child marriage

(Economics)  Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur

Question 1. Every village in India is surveyed once is ten years during the Census and some of details are presented in the following format. Fill up the following based on information on Palampur.

(a). LOCATION:
(b). TOTAL AREA OF THE VILLAGE:
(c). LAND USE (in hectares):
(d). FACILITIES:

Question 2. Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?

Question 3. How did the spread of electricity help farmers in Palampur?

Question 4. Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?

Question 5. Construct a table on the distribution of land among the 450 families of Palampur.

Question 6. Why are the wages for farm labourers in Palampur less than minimum wages?

Question 7. In your region, talk to two labourers. Choose either farm labourers or labourers working at construction sites. What wages do they get? Are they paid in cash or kind? Do they get work regularly? Are they in debt?

Question 8. What are the different ways of increasing production on the same piece of land? Use examples to explain.

Question 9. Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.

Question 10. How do the medium and large farmers obtain capital for farming? How is it different from the small farmers?

Question 11. On what terms did Savita get a loan from Tajpal Singh? Would Savita’s condition be different if she could get a loan from the bank at a low rate of interest?

Question 12. Talk to some old residents in your region and write a short report on the changes in irrigation and changes in production methods during the last 30 years. (Optional)

(Economics)  Chapter 2 People as Resource

Question 1. What do you understand by 'people as a resource'?

Question 2. How is human resource different from other resources like land and physical capital?

Question 3. What is the role of education in human capital formation?

Question 4. What is the role of health in human capital formation?

Question 5. What part does health play in the individual’s working life?

Question 6. What are the various activities undertaken in the primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector?

Question 7. What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?

Question 8. Why are women employed in low paid work?

Question 9. How will you explain the term unemployment?

Question 10. What is the difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment?

Question 11. Why is educated unemployed, a peculiar problem of India?

Question 12. In which field do you think India can build the maximum employment opportunity?

Question 13. Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed?

Question 14. Can you imagine some village which initially had no job opportunities but later came up with many?

Question 15. Which capital would you consider the best — land, labour, physical capital and human capital? Why?

(Economics)  Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge

Question 1. Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India.

Question 2. Do you think that present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate?

Question 3. Describe poverty trends in India since 1973.

Question 4. Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India.

Question 5. Identify the social and economic groups which are most vulnerable to poverty in India.

Question 6. Give an account of interstate disparities in poverty in India.

Question 7. Describe global poverty trends.

Question 8. Describe current government strategy of poverty alleviation.

Question 9. Answer the following questions briefly

(i) What do you understand by human poverty?
(ii) Who are the poorest of the poor?
(iii) What are the main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005?

(Economics)  Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Question 1. How is food security ensured in India?

Question 2. Which are the people more prone to food insecurity? 3. Which states are more food insecure in India?

Question 4. Do you believe that green revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains? How?

Question 5. A section of people in India are still without food. Explain?

Question 6. What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?

Question 7. Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger?

Question 8. What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government?

Question 9. Why is a buffer stock created by the government?

Question 10.Write notes on:

(a) Minimum support price
(b) Buffer stock
(c) Issue price
(d) Fair price shops

Question 11. What are the problems of the functioning of ration shops?

Question 12. Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items.

(History)  Chapter 1 Events And Processes

ActivityEvents And Processes

•  Explain why the artist has portrayed the nobleman as the spider and the peasant as the fly.

• Fill in the blank boxes in Fig. 4 with appropriate terms from among the following: Food riots, scarcity of grain, increased number of deaths, rising food prices, weaker bodies.

• Representatives of the Third Estate take the oath raising their arms in the direction of Bailly, the President of the Assembly, standing on a table in the centre. Do you think that during the actual event Bailly would have stood with his back to the assembled deputies? What could have been David’s intention in placing Bailly (Fig.5) the way he has done?

• 1. Identify the symbols in Box 1 which stand for liberty, equality and fraternity.

• Explain the meaning of the painting of the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen (Fig. 8) by reading only the symbols.

• Compare the political rights which the Constitution of 1791 gave to the citizens with Articles 1 and 6 of the Declaration (Source C). Are the two documents consistent? Do the two documents convey the same idea?

• Which groups of French society would have gained from the Constitution of 1791? Which groups would have had reason to be dissatisfied? What developments does Marat (Source B) anticipate in the future?

• Imagine the impact of the events in France on neighbouring countries such as Prussia, Austria-Hungary or Spain, all of which were absolute monarchies. How would the kings, traders, peasants, nobles or members of the clergy here have reacted to the news of what was happening in France?

• Look carefully at the painting and identify the objects which are political symbols you saw in Box 1 (broken chain, red cap, fasces, Charter of the Declaration of Rights). The pyramid stands for equality, often represented by a triangle. Use the symbols to interpret the painting. Describe your impressions of the female figure of liberty.

• Compare the views of Desmoulins and Robespierre. How does each one understand the use of state force? What does Robespierre mean by ‘the war of liberty against tyranny’? How does Desmoulins perceive liberty? Refer once more to Source C. What did the constitutional laws on the rights of individuals lay down? Discuss your views on the subject in class.

• Which groups of French society would have gained from the Constitution of 1791? Which groups would have had reason to be dissatisfied? What developments does Marat (Source B) anticipate in the future?

• Imagine the impact of the events in France on neighbouring countries such as Prussia, Austria-Hungary or Spain, all of which were absolute monarchies. How would the kings, traders, peasants, nobles or members of the clergy here have reacted to the news of what was happening in France?

• Why did people in Central Asia respond to the Russian Revolution in different ways?

• Compare the views of Desmoulins and Robespierre. How does each one understand the use of state force? What does Robespierre mean by ‘the war of liberty against tyranny’? How does Desmoulins perceive liberty? Refer once more to Source C. What did the constitutional laws on the rights of individuals lay down? Discuss your views on the subject in class.

• Describe the persons represented in Fig. 12 – their actions, their postures, the objects they are carrying. Look carefully to see whether all of them come from the same social group. What symbols has the artist included in the image? What do they stand for? Do the actions of the women reflect traditional ideas of how women were expected to behave in public? What do you think: does the artist sympathise with the women’s activities or is he critical of them? Discuss your views in the class.

• Compare the manifesto drafted by Olympe de Gouges (Source F) with the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen (Source C).

• Record your impressions of this print (Fig. 14). Describe the objects lying on the ground. What do they symbolise? What attitude does the picture express towards non-European slaves?

• Imagine yourself to be one of the women in Fig. 13. Formulate a response to the arguments put forward by Chaumette (Source G). Source G

• Record your impressions of this print (Fig. 14). Describe the objects lying on the ground. What do they symbolise? What attitude does the picture express towards non-European slaves?

• Describe the picture in your own words. What are the images that the artist has used to communicate the following ideas: greed, equality, justice, takeover by the state of the assets of the church?

Question 1. Find out more about any one of the revolutionary figures you have read about in this chapter. Write a short biography of this person.

Question2. The French Revolution saw the rise of newspapers describing the events of each day and week. Collect information and pictures on any one event and write a newspaper article. You could also conduct an imaginary interview with important personages such as Mirabeau, Olympe de Gouges or Robespierre. Work in groups of two or three. Each group could then put up their articles on a board to produce a wallpaper on the French Revolution.

Exercise Questions Events and Processes

Question 1. Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France.

Question 2. Which groups of French society benefited from the revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections of society would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution?

Question 3. Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world during the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.

Question 4. Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy today whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution.


Question 5. Would you agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.

Question 6. How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?

(History)  Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

Activity Socialism in Europe and
the Russian Revolution (The Age of Social Change)

• List two differences between the capitalist and socialist ideas of private property.

•  Imagine that a meeting has been called in your area to discuss the socialist idea of doing away with private property and introducing collective ownership. Write the speech you would make at the meeting if you are:

• a poor labourer working in the fields

• a medium-level landowner

• a house owner

• Why were there revolutionary disturbances in Russia in 1905? What were the demands of revolutionaries?

•  The year is 1916. You are a general in the Tsar’s army on the eastern front. You are writing a report for the government in Moscow. In your report suggest what you think the government should do to improve the situation.

• Identify the symbols in Box 1 which stand for liberty, equality and fraternity.

• Look again at Source A and Box 1.

• List five changes in the mood of the workers.

• Place yourself in the position of a woman who has seen both situations and write an account of what has changed.

• Read the two views on the revolution in the countryside. Imagine yourself to be a witness to the events. Write a short account from the standpoint of:

• an owner of an estate

• a small peasant

• a journalist

• Which groups of French society would have gained from the Constitution of 1791? Which groups would have had reason to be dissatisfied? What developments does Marat (Source B) anticipate in the future?

• Imagine the impact of the events in France on neighbouring countries such as Prussia, Austria-Hungary or Spain, all of which were absolute monarchies. How would the kings, traders, peasants, nobles or members of the clergy here have reacted to the news of what was happening in France?

• Why did people in Central Asia respond to the Russian Revolution in different ways?

• Compare the views of Desmoulins and Robespierre. How does each one understand the use of state force? What does Robespierre mean by ‘the war of liberty against tyranny’? How does Desmoulins perceive liberty? Refer once more to Source C. What did the constitutional laws on the rights of individuals lay down? Discuss your views on the subject in class.

• Compare the passages written by Shaukat Usmani and Rabindranath Tagore. Read them in relation to Sources C, D and E.

• What did Indians find impressive about the USSR ?

• What did the writers fail to notice?

• Compare the manifesto drafted by Olympe de Gouges (Source F) with the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen (Source C).

• Imagine yourself to be one of the women in Fig. 13. Formulate a response to the arguments put forward by Chaumette (Source G).

• Record your impressions of this print (Fig. 14). Describe the objects lying on the ground. What do they symbolise? What attitude does the picture express towards non-European slaves?

Describe the picture in your own words. What are the images that the artist has used to communicate the following ideas: greed, equality, justice, takeover by the state of the assets of the church?

Question 1. Imagine that you are a striking worker in 1905 who is being tried in court for your act of rebellion. Draft the speech you would make in your defence. Act out your speech for your class.

Question 2. Write the headline and a short news item about the uprising of 24 October 1917 for each of the following newspapers

• a Conservative paper in France

• a Radical newspaper in Britain

• a Bolshevik newspaper in Russia

Question3. Imagine that you are a middle-level wheat farmer in Russia after collectivisation. You have decided to write a letter to Stalin explaining your objections to collectivisation. What would you write about the conditions of your life? What do you think would be Stalin’s response to such a farmer?

• The French Revolution saw the rise of newspapers describing the events of each day and week. Collect information and pictures on any one event and write a newspaper article. You could also conduct an imaginary interview with important personages such as Mirabeau, Olympe de Gouges or Robespierre. Work in groups of two or three. Each group could then put up their articles on a board to produce a wallpaper on the French Revolution.

Exercise Questions Events and Processes

Question 1. What were the social, economic and political conditions in Russia before 1905?

Question 2. In what ways was the working population in Russia different from other countries in Europe, before 1917?

Question 3. Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917?

Question4. Make two lists: one with the main events and the effects of the February Revolution and the other with the main events and effects of the October Revolution. Write a paragraph on who was involved in each, who were the leaders and what was the impact of each on Soviet history.

Question5. What were the main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution?

Question6. Write a few lines to show what you know about:

•  kulaks

•  the Duma

•  women workers between 1900 and 1930

•  the Liberals Activities

Question 1. Imagine that you are a striking worker in 1905 who is being tried in court for your act of rebellion. Draft the speech you would make in your defence. Act out your speech for your class.

Question 2. Write the headline and a short news item about the uprising of 24 October 1917 for each of the following newspapers

•  a Conservative paper in France

•  a Radical newspaper in Britain

•  a Bolshevik newspaper in Russia

Question 3. Imagine that you are a middle-level wheat farmer in Russia after collectivisation. You have decided to write a letter to Stalin explaining your objections to collectivisation. What would you write about the conditions of your life? What do you think would be Stalin’s response to such a farmer? Activities

(History) Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Activity Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

• Read Sources A and B

•  What do they tell you about Hitler’s imperial ambition?

•  What do you think Mahatma Gandhi would have said to Hitler about these ideas?

•  See the next two pages and write briefly:

•  What does citizenship mean to you? Look at Chapters I and 3 and write 200 words on how the French Revolution and Nazism defined citizenship.

•  What did the Nuremberg Laws mean to the ‘undesirables’ in Nazi Germany? What other legal measures were taken against them to make them feel unwanted?

• If you were a student sitting in one of these classes, how would you have felt towards Jews? Have you ever thought of the stereotypes of other communities that people around you believe in? How have they acquired them?

• If you were a student sitting in one of these classes, how would you have felt towards Jews? Have you ever thought of the stereotypes of other communities that people around you believe in? How have they acquired them?

• How would you have reacted to Hilter’s ideas if you were:

•  A Jewish woman

• A non-Jewish German woman

• What do you think this poster is trying to depict?

• Look at Figs. 29 and 30 and answer the following: What do they tell us about Nazi propagarnda? How are the Nazis trying to mobilise different sections of the population?

• Why does Erna Kranz say, ‘I could only say for myself’? How do you view her opinion?

• Write a one page history of Germany

• as a schoolchild in Nazi Germany

• as a Jewish survivor of a concentration camp

• as a political opponent of the Nazi regime

• Imagine that you are Helmuth. You have had many Jewish friends in school and do not believe that Jews are bad. Write a paragraph on what you would say to your father.

Exercise Questions Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Question 1. Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic.

Question 2. Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930.

Question 3. What are the peculiar features of Nazi thinking?

Question 4. Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating a hatred for Jews.

Question 5. Explain what role women had in Nazi society. Return to Chapter 1 on the French Revolution. Write a paragraph comparing and contrasting the role of women in the two periods.

Question 6. In what ways did the Nazi state seek to establish total control over its people ?

(History) Chapter 4 Livelihoods, Economies and Societies

Activity Livelihoods, Economies and Societies

• Each mile of railway track required between 1,760 and 2,000 sleepers. If one averagesized tree yields 3 to 5 sleepers for a 3 metre wide broad gauge track, calculate approximately how many trees would have to be cut to lay one mile of track.

• If you were the Government of India in 1862 and responsible for supplying the railways with sleepers and fuel on such a large scale, what were the steps you would have taken?

• An adivasi child will be able to name hundreds of species of trees and plants. How many species of trees can you name?

• Have there been changes in forest areas where you live? Find out what these changes are and why they have happened.

• Write a dialogue between a colonial forester and an adivasi discussing the issue of hunting in the forest.

NCERT Solutions Intext Questons

Questons 1. Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:

• Shifting cultivators

• Nomadic and pastoralist communities

• Firms trading in timber/forest produce

• Plantation owners

• Kings/British officials engaged in shikar

Questons 2. What are the similarities between colonial management of the forests in Bastar and in Java?

Questons 3. Between 1880 and 1920, forest cover in the Indian subcontinent declined by 9.7 million hectares, from 108.6 million hectares to 98.9 million hectares. Discuss the role of the following factors in this decline:

• Railways

• Shipbuilding

• Agricultural expansion

• Commercial farming

• Tea/Coffee plantations

• Adivasis and other peasant users

Question 4. Why are forests affected by wars?

(History)  Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World

Activity

• Read Sources A and B.

• Write briefly about what they tell you about the nature of the work undertaken by men and women in pastoral households.

• Why do you think pastoral groups often live on the edges of forests?

• Write a comment on the closure of the forests to grazing from the standpoint of:

• a forester

• a pastoralist

• Imagine you are living in the 1890s. You belong to a community of nomadic pastoralists and craftsmen. You learn that the Government has declared your community as a Criminal Tribe.

• Describe briefly what you would have felt and done.

• Write a petition to the local collector explaining why the Act is unjust and how it will affect your life.

• Imagine that it is 1950 and you are a 60-year-old Raika herder living in post-Independence India. You are telling your grand-daughter about the changes which have taken place in your lifestyle after Independence. What would you say

• Imagine that you have been asked by a famous magazine to write an article about the life and customs of the Maasai in pre-colonial Africa. Write the article, giving it an interesting title. Find out more about the some of the pastoral communities marked in Figs. 11 and 13.

NCERT Solutions Intext Questions

Question 1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?

Question 2. Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of pastoralists:

• Waste Land rules

• Forest Acts

• Criminal Tribes Act

• Grazing Tax

Question 4. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.

Question 5. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples of changes which were similar for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders.

(History)  Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers

Activity

• Look at the graph carefully. See how the price line moves up sharply in the 1790s and slumps dramatically after 1815. Can you explain why the line of the graph shows this pattern?

• What happened to the women and children? Cow keeping, collection of firewood, gleaning, gathering of fruits and berries from the common lands was earlier mostly done by women and children. Can you suggest how enclosures must have affected the lives of women and children? Can you imagine how the disappearance of common lands might have changed the relationship between men, women and children within the family?

• Read Sources C and D and answer the following.

• What is the peasant trying to say in Source C?

• What is John Middleton arguing?

• Re-read from Section 1.1 to 1.4 and summarize the two sides of the argument for and against open fields. Which argument do you sympathise with?

• On the arrows in the map indicate the commodities that flowed from one country to another.

• Imagine that you were asked by the Emperor of China to prepare a leaflet for young people about the harmful effects of opium. Find out about the effect of opium on the human body. Design your leaflet and give it an eyecatching title

• Imagine that you are the leader of a group of farmers protesting against having to grow opium. You have been granted a meeting with the local official of the East India Company. How would the conversation proceed? Divide the class into the two groups and act out the conversation you would have.

• Draw a timeline from 1650 to1930 showing the significant agricultural changes which you have read about in this chapter.
  Fill in the following table with the events outlined in this chapter. Remember, there could be more than one change in a country.

NCERT Solutions Intext Questions

Question 1. Explain briefly what the open field system meant to rural people in eighteenthcentury England. Look at the system from the point of view of :

• A rich farmer

• A labourer

• A peasant woman

Question 2. Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England.

Question 3. Why were threshing machines opposed by the poor in England?

Question 4. Who was Captain Swing? What did the name symbolise or represent?

Question 5. What was the impact of the westward expansion of settlers in the USA?

Question 6. What were the advantages and disadvantages of the use of mechanical harvesting machines in the USA?

Question 7. What lessons can we draw from the conversion of the countryside in the USA from a bread basket to a dust bowl?

Question 8. Write a paragraph on why the British insisted on farmers growing opium in India.

Question 9. Why were Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium?

(History)  Chapter 7 Everyday Life, Culture And Politics

Activity

• What does the sports curriculum of a nineteenth century girls school tell us about the behaviour considered proper for girls at that time?

Question 1. Imagine a conversation between Thomas Arnold, the headmaster of Rugby School, and Mahatma Gandhi on the value of cricket in education. What would each say? Write out a conversation in the form of a dialogue.

Question 2. Find out the history of any one local sport. Ask your parents and grandparents how this game was played in their childhood. See whether it is played in the same way now. Try and think of the historical forces that might account for the changes.

NCERT Solutions Intext Questons

Question 1. Test cricket is a unique game in many ways. Discuss some of the ways in which it is different from other team games. How are the peculiarities of Test cricket shaped by its historical beginnings as a village game?

Question 2. Describe one way in which in the nineteenth century, technology brought about a change in equipment and give one example where no change in equipment took place.

Question 3. Explain why cricket became popular in India and the West Indies. Can you give reasons why it did not become popular in countries in South America?

Question 4. Give brief explanations for the following:

• The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India.

• Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentangular tournament.

• The name of the ICC was changed from the Imperial Cricket Conference to the International Cricket Conference.

• The significance of the shift of the ICC headquarters from London to Dubai

Question 5. How have advances in technology, especially television technology, affected the development of contemporary cricket?

(History)  Chapter 8 Clothing A Social History

Activity

• Look at Figures 2 - 5. Write 150 words on what the differences in the pictures tell us about the society and culture in France at the time of the Revolution.
   

• Read Sources A and B. What do they tell you about the ideas of clothing in Victorian society? If you were the principal in Mary Somerville’s school how would you have justified the clothing practices?
   

• In what ways do you think these notions of weakness and dependence came to be reflected in women’s clothing?
   

• Imagine yourself to be a Muslim pleader in the Allahabad high court in the late nineteenth century. What kind of clothes would you wear? Would they be very different from what you wore at home?
   

• These two quotations (Sources E and F), from about the same period are from two different regions of India, Kerala and Bengal. What do they tell you about the very different notions of shame regarding women’s attire?
   

• If you were a poor peasant would you have willingly taken to giving up mill-made cloth? Fig.20
   

• Can you think of other reasons why the use of khadi could not spread among some classes, castes and regions of India?
   

• Imagine you are the 14-year-old child of a trader. Write a paragraph on what you feel about the sumptuary laws in France.
   

• Can you think of any expectations of proper and improper dress which exist today? Give examples of two forms of clothing which would be considered disrespectful in certain places but acceptable in others.

NCERT Solutions Intext Questions

Question 1. Explain the reasons for the changes in clothing patterns and materials in the eighteenth century.

Question 2. What were the sumptuary laws in France?

Question 3. Give any two examples of the ways in which European dress codes were different from Indian dress codes.

Question 4. In 1805, a British official, Benjamin Heyne, listed the manufactures of Bangalore which included the following:

• Women’s cloth of different musters and names

• Coarse chintz

• Muslins

• Silk cloths Of this list, which kind of cloth would have definitely fallen out of use in the early 1800s and why?

Question 5. Suggest reasons why women in nineteenth century India were obliged to continue wearing traditional Indian dress even when men switched over to the more convenient Western clothing. What does this show about the position of women in society?

Question 6. Winston Churchill described Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘seditious Middle Temple Lawyer’ now ‘posing as a half naked fakir’. What provoked such a comment and what does it tell you about the symbolic strength of Mahatma Gandhi’s dress?

Question 7. Why did Mahatma Gandhi’s dream of clothing the nation in khadi appeal only to some sections of Indians?

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(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Economics)

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 100

Instructions:

1. All questions in both sections are compulsory. However, there is internal choice in some questions.
2. Marks for questions are indicated against each question.
3. Question No.1-5 and 16-20 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. They are required to be answered in one sentence.
4. Question No.6-8 and 21-23 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.
5. Question No.9-11 and 24-26 are also short answer questions carrying 4 marks each.
Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.
6. Question No.12-15 and 27-30 are long answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each
7. Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

Section A: Microeconomics

1. When is a consumer said to be rational? (1)

2. Define normative economics, with a suitable example. (1)

3. State the meaning of `quantity demanded of a commodity`. (1)

4. If a firm’s production department data says that the total variable cost for producing 8 units and 10 units of output is 2,500 and 3,000 respectively, marginal cost of 10th unit will be
a. 100
b. 150
c. 500
d. 250

5. State any one assumption for the construction of the curve that shows the possibilities of potential production of two goods in an economy. (1)

6. State the behavior of Marginal Physical Product, under Returns to a Factor. (3)

7. Using appropriate schedules, briefly describe the determination of market equilibrium. (3)

8. “In a hypothetical market of mobile phones, the brand AWAAZ was leading the market share. Its nearest competitor VAARTA suddenly changed its strategy by bringing in a new model of the mobile phone at a relatively lesser price. In response, AWAAZ too slashed its price.”

Based on the above information, identify the form of market represented and discuss any one feature of the market.

Or

Discuss the primary reason for ‘indeterminateness of demand curve’ under the oligopoly form of market. (3)

9. a. Arrange the following coefficients of price elasticity of demand in ascending order: -0.7, -0.3, -1.1, -0.8
b. Comment upon the degree of elasticity of demand for Good X, using the total outlay method, if the price of X falls from 18 per unit to 13 per unit and its quantity demanded rises from 50 units to 100 units. (1+3)

10. Identify which of the following is not true for the Indifference Curves. Give valid reasons for choice of your answer:
a. Lower indifference curve represents lower level of satisfaction.
b. Two regular convex to origin indifference curves can intersect each other.
c. Indifference curve must be convex to origin at the point of tangency with the budget line at the consumer’s equilibrium.
d. Indifference curves are drawn under the ordinal approach to consumer equilibrium.

OR

A consumer has total money income of 250 to be spent on two goods X and Y with prices of 25 and 10 per unit respectively. On the basis of the information given, answer the following questions:
a. Give the equation of the budget line for the consumer.
b. What is the value of slope of the budget line?
c. How many units can the consumer buy if he is to spend all his money income on good X?
d. How does the budget line change if there is a fall in price of good Y? (4)

11. Explain the concept of marginal opportunity cost using a numerical example. (4)

12. Define Price Floor. What is the common purpose of fixation of floor price by the government? Explain any one likely consequence of this nature of intervention by the government.

OR

Define Price Ceiling. What is the common purpose for the price ceiling imposed by the government? Explain any one likely consequence of this nature of intervention by the government in the price determination process. 

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(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Engineering Graphics)
 

Time allowed: 3 hours

Maximum marks: 70

Instructions:

i. Attempt all the questions.
ii. Use both sides of the drawing sheet, if necessary.
iii. All dimensions are in millimetres.
iv. Missing and mismatching dimensions, if any, may be suitably assumed.
v. Follow the SP: 46-2003 revised codes (with first angle  method of projection).
vi. In no view of question2, are hidden edges or lines required.
vii. In question 4, hidden edges or lines are to be shown in views without section.
viii. Number your answers according to questions.

Q.1 Answer the following Multiple Choice Questions. Print the correct choice on your drawing sheet 5 X 1=5

(i) What is the angle in degree between the main scale and isometric scale  in the construction of isometric scale?

a) 300
b) 150
c) 45o
d) 90o

(ii) Which is the modified form of square thread?

a) V-thread
b) Metric thread
c) Knuckle thread
d) B.S.W thread

(iii) What is the width of the Rectangular Sunk Key, if the diameter of the shaft is D?

a) D/2
b) D/8
c) D/4
d) D/6

(iv) Name the joint used for joining two pipes

a) Flanged pipe joint
b) Bushed bearing
c) Turn buckle
d) Cotter joint

(v)Name the portion between the rim and the hub of a cast iron pulley

a) Shaft
b) Gap
c) Bush
d) Web

Q.2 (i) Construct an isometric scale. 4

(ii) A frustum of a pentagonal pyramid (base side 50mm, top side 30mm and axis 70mm) is kept with its axis perpendicular to H.P. One of its base sides parallel to V.P. and away from it. Draw its isometric projection. Show the  axis and indicate the direction of viewing .Give all dimensions. 7

(iii) A hexagonal pyramid (base edge 30mm, axis 50mm), having two of its hexagonal edges parallel to V.P., is placed centrally on the top square face of a square slab(base side 80mm, height 20mm). The common axis is perpendicular to H.P. Draw the isometric projection of the combination of solids. Show the common axis and indicate the direction of viewing. Give all dimensions. 13

Q.3. (i) Draw to scale 1:1 the front view and top view of a hexagonal nut, with vertical axis (diameter 20mm). Give standard dimensions. 8

OR

Draw to scale 1:1, the front view and side view of a Square headed bolt of diameter 20mm, keeping the axis parallel to V.P and H.P. Give standard dimensions.

(ii) Sketch freehand the front view and top view of a Grub screw of size M25, Keeping the axis vertical. Give standard dimensions. 5

OR

Sketch freehand the front view and side view of a Plain stud, of diameter 20mm, keeping the axis horizontal. Give standard dimensions.

Q.4 Figure 1 shows the details of the parts of a FLANGE PIPE JOINT. Assemble these parts correctly, and then draw the following views using scale 1:1.

(i) Front view, top half in section. 14
(ii) Left side view. 8

Print the title and the scale used. Draw the projection symbol. Give 6 important dimensions.

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(Download) CBSE Class-10 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Foundation of Information Technology)

Max Time: 3

hours Max Marks: 70

SECTION A

Q1) Fill in the blanks: [5]

i) Viruses, worms and trojans are collectively named ________________.

ii) Cellspacing attribute is used with ______________ tag.

iii) _____________ is a program which makes you view the information on the World Wide Web.

iv) Collection of Web Pages is called _____________.

v) Columns of a table are specified using __________tag.

vi) _________ can replicate itself automatically .

vii)_________ attribute is used with <A> tag to specify the URL of link.

viii) ___________ is type of program that is installed on a user’s computer to collect information about user.

ix) XML attribute value should always be enclosed in _______________ .

x) ______________is a program that appears harmless but actually performs malicious functions.

Q2) State True or False: [5]

i) The World Wide Web Consortium was founded to develop common standards.

ii) An XML document can have any number of child elements.

iii) No value is specified with border attribute of <img> tag.

iv) COLSPAN attribute of <TD> tag is used to merge more than one column of table.

v) Unsolicited bulk emails are called spam.

vi) Malware is Antivirus software.

vii) Because each computer differs in terms of what fonts it can display, each individual browser determines how text is to be displayed.

viii) Xml is Extended MarkupLanguage

ix) Software piracy is crime.

x) A cracker is a malicious programmer who break into secure systems.

Q3) Short Answer Questions –

i. What does an anti-virus software do? [2]

ii. What is full form of HTTP and what is its use? [2]

iii. Write the HTML code to display links of a web page in yellow colour. [2]

iv. Write the full forms of: [2]
i) URL
ii) <LI>
iii) <TD>
iv) HTML

v. As life gets busier, it becomes difficult for everyone to keep a track with school & college friends, old colleagues, old neighbours and favourite teachers. It is important to keep in touch with all your near and dear ones. At times, people sitting miles away doing similar kind of activity or solving similar kind of problems can help you to achieve goals faster by sharing their experiences. Similarly people belonging to different socio-economic background can change your perspective and can enhance your understanding of various cultures. [2]
a. Suggest two real time tools that are suitable for the above-mentioned activities.
b. What is the generic name used for such tools?

vi. Laleema Chakradhar wants a broadband connection for accessing her mails and staying informed about the latest happenings in the field of Biotechnology. Can you suggest two Internet Service Providers of India to be approached for the same? [2]

Q4) Short Answer Questions –
i. Draw the XML tree for the code given below: 

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(Download) CBSE Class-10 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Hindi-A)

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NCERT  Science Question Paper (Class-9)

Chapter 1 Matter In Our Surroundings

Question 1. Which of the following are matter? Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, colddrink, smell of perfume.

Question 2. Give reasons for the following observation: The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.

Question 3. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation show?

Question 4. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?

Question 5. The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density. (density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.

Question 6. (a) Tabulate the differences in the characterisitcs of states of matter. (b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.

Question 7. Give reasons
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container. (c) A wooden table should be called a solid. (d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we need a karate expert.

Question 8. Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.

Question 9. Convert the following temperature to celsius scale: a. 300 K b. 573 K.

Question 10. What is the physical state of water at: a. 250ºC b. 100ºC ? 3. For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state? 4. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.

Question 11. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?

Question 12. How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?

Question 13. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it? 4. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?

Question 14. What type of clothes should we wear in summer?

Question 15 1. Convert the following temperatures to the Celsius scale.

(a) 300 K
(b) 573 K.
 
Question 16. Convert the following temperatures to the Kelvin scale.

(a) 25°C
(b) 373°C.

Question 17. Give reason for the following observations.

(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.

Question 18. Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles— water, sugar, oxygen.

Question 19. What is the physical state of water at—

(a) 25°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 100°C ?

Question 20. Give two reasons to justify—

(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.

Question 21. Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?

Question 22. What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?

Question 23. Name A,B,C,D,E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state

Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 1. What is meant by a pure substance?

Question 2. List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

Question 3. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.

Question 4. How are sol solution and suspension different from each other?

Question 5. To make a saturated solution 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.

Question 6. How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25ºC) which are miscible with each other?

Question 7. Name the technique to separate

(i) butter from curd
(ii) salt from sea-water
(iii) camphor from salt.

Question 8. What type of mixtures are separated by the technique of crystallisation?

Question 9. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

• cutting of trees

• melting of butter in a pan

• rusting of almirah

• boiling of water to form steam

• passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases

• dissolving common salt in water

• making a fruit salad with raw fruits and

• burning of paper and wood.

Question 10. Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures. NCERT Solutions Intext Questions Page no.

Question 11. Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?

(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd.
(f) Oil from water.
(g) Tea leaves from tea.
(h) Iron pins from sand.
(i) Wheat grains from husk.
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.

Question 12. Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.

Question 13. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution) .

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?

Question 14. Explain the following giving examples.

(a) saturated solution
(b) pure substance
(c) colloid
(d) suspension

Question 15. Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture. soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.

Question 16. How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?

Question 17. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?

(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air.

Question 18. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

(a) Soil
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(d) Coal
(e) Soda water.

Question 19. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) Starch solution.

Question 20. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

(a) Sodium
(b) Soil
(c) Sugar solution
(d) Silver
(e) Calcium carbonate
(f) Tin
(g) Silicon
(h) Coal
(i) Air
(j) Soap
(k) Methane
(l) Carbon dioxide
(m) Blood

Question 21. Which of the following are chemical changes?

(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of a candle.

Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Quetion 1. In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of carbon = dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that theseobservations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass. sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water

Quetion 2. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas?

Quetion 3. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of conservation of mass?

Quetion 4. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions?

Quetion 5. Define the atomic mass unit.

Quetion 6. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?

Quetion 7.Following formulae:

(i) Al2(SO4)3
(ii) CaCl2
(iii) K2SO4
(iv) KNO3
(v) CaCO3.

Question 8. What is meant by the term chemical formula?

Question 9. How many atoms are present in a

(i) H2S molecule and
(ii) PO4 3– ion?

Question 10. Write down the formulae of

(i) sodium oxide
(ii) aluminium chloride
(iii) sodium suphide
(iv) magnesium hydroxide

Question 11. Write down the names of compounds represented by the

Question 12. Calculate the molecular masses of H2, O2, Cl2, CO2, CH4, C2H6, C2H4, NH3, CH3OH.

Question 13. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, Na2O, K2CO3, given atomic masses of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u, K = 39 u, C = 12 u, and O = 16 u.

Question 14. If one mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 gram, what is the mass (in gram) of 1 atom of carbon?

Question 15. Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of sodium or 100 grams of iron (given, atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?

Question 16. A 0.24 g sample of compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.

Question 17 . When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?

Question 18. What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.

Question 19 Write the chemical formulae of the following.

(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate.

Question 20. Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds.

(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate.

Question 21. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances.

(a) Ethyne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HN O3

Question 22. What is the mass of—

(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)?

Question 23. Convert into mole.

(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide.

Question 24. What is the mass of:

(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?

Question 25. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.

Question 26. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide. (Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element. Atomic mass of Al = 27 u)

Chapter 4 Structure of The Atom

Question 1. What are canal rays?

Question 2. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?

Question 3. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.

Question 4. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?

Question 5. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.

Question 6. What do you think would be the observation if the α-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?  

Question 7. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.

Question 8. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom?

Question 9. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?

Question 10. For the symbol H,D and T tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each of them.

Question 12. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.

Question 13. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Question 14. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?

Question 15. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?

Question 16. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.

Question 17. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this chapter.

Question 18. Summarise the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first eighteen elements.

Question 19. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Question 20. Explain with examples

(i) Atomic number
(ii) Mass number
(iii) Isotopes
(iv) Isobars. Give any two uses of isotopes.

Question 21. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.

Question 22. If bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes 79 35 Br (49.7%) and 81 35 Br (50.3%), calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.

Question 23. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of isotopes 16 8 X and 18 8 X in the sample?

Question 24. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.

Question 25. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under X Y Protons = 6 6 Neutrons = 6 8 Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?

Question 26. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.

(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
(c) The mass of an electron is about 1 2000 times that of proton.
(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine. Put tick () against correct choice and cross (×) against wrong choice in questions 15, 16 and 17

Question 27. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

(a) Atomic Nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron

Question 28. Isotopes of an element have

(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers.

Question 29. Number of valence electrons in Cl– ion are:

(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18

Question 30. Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

(a) 2,8
(b) 8,2,1
(c) 2,1,8
(d) 2,8,1.

Question 31. Complete the following table.

Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

Question 1. Who discovered cells, and how?

Question 2. Why is the cell called the structural and functional unit of life?

Question 3. How do substances like CO2 and water move in and out of the cell? Discuss.

Question 4. Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?  

Question 5. Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Question 6. Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material?

Question 7. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen?

Question 8. Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?

Question 9. Where are proteins synthesised inside the cell?

Question 10. Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells.

Question 12. How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?

Question 13. What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?

Question 14. What would happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?

Question 15. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?

Question 16. Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesised?

Question 17. How does an Amoeba obtain its food?

Question 18. What is osmosis?

Question 19. Carry out the following osmosis experiment: Take four peeled potato halves and scoos each one out to make potato cups. One of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water. Now,

(a) Keep cup A empty
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D.

Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups and answer the following:
(i) Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion of B and C.
(ii) Why is potato A necessary for this experiment?
(iii) Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D.

Chapter 7 Diversity In Living Organisms

Question 1. Why do we classify organisms?

Question 2. Give three examples of the range of variations that you see in lifeforms around you

Question 3. Which do you think is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms?

(a) The place where they live.
(b) The kind of cells they are made of. Why?

Question 4. What is the primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made?

Question 5. On what bases are plants and animals put into different categories?

Question 6. Which organisms are called primitive and how are they different from the so-called advanced organisms?

Question 7. Will advanced organisms be the same as complex organisms? Why?

Question 8. What is the criterion for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom Monera or Protista?

Question 9. In which kingdom will you place an organism which is singlecelled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic?

Question 10. In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will have the smallest number of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common and which will have the largest number of organisms?

Question 11. Which division among plants has the simplest organisms?

Question 12. How are pteridophytes different from the phanerogams?

Question 13. How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from each other?

Question 14. How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate animals?

Question 15. How do annelid animals differ from arthropods?

Question 16. What are the differences between amphibians and reptiles?

Question 17. What are the differences between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in the mammalia group?

Question 18. What are the advantages of classifying organisms?

Question 19. How would you choose between two characteristics to be used for developing a hierarchy in classification?

Question 20. Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms.

Question 21. What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is the basis for these divisions?

Question 22. How are the criteria for deciding divisions in plants different from the criteria for deciding the subgroups among animals?

Question 23. Explain how animals in Vertebrata are classified into further subgroups.

Chapter 8 Motion

Question 1. An object has moved through a distance. Can it have zero displacement? If yes, support your answer with an example.

Question 2. A farmer moves along the boundary of a square field of side 10 m in 40 s. What will be the magnitude of displacement of the farmer at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds?

Question 3. Which of the following is true for displacement?

(a) It cannot be zero.
(b) Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled by the object.

Question 4. Distinguish between speed and velocity.

Question 5. Under what condition(s) is the magnitude of average velocity of an object equal to its average speed?

Question 6. What does the odometer of an automobile measure?

Question 7. What does the path of an object look like when it is in uniform motion?

Question 5. During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in five minutes. What was the distance of the spaceship from the ground station? The signal travels at the speed of

Question 8. When will you say a body is in

(i) uniform acceleration?
(ii) nonuniform acceleration?

Question 9. A bus decreases its speed from 80 km h–1 to 60 km h–1 in 5 s. Find the acceleration of the bus.

Question 10. A train starting from a railway station and moving with uniform acceleration attains a speed 40 km h–1 in 10 minutes. Find its acceleration.

Question 11. What is the nature of the distance-time graphs for uniform and non-uniform motion of an object?

Question 12. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance-time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

Question 13. What can you say about the motion of an object if its speedtime graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

Question 14. What is the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity-time graph?

Question 15. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s-2 for 2 minutes. Find

(a) The speed acquired,
(b) The distance travelled

Question 16. A train is travelling at a speed of 90 km h–1. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of – 0.5 m s-2. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.

Question 17. A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of 2 cm s-2. What will be its velocity 3 s after the start?

Question 18. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 m s-2. What distance will it cover in 10 s after start?

Question 19. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 5 m s-1. If the acceleration of the stone during its motion is 10 m s–2 in the downward direction, what will be the height attained by the stone and how much time will it take to reach there?

Question 20. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200 m in 40 s. What will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of 2 minutes 20 s?

Question 21. Joseph jogs from one end A to the other end B of a straight 300 m road in 2 minutes 50 seconds and then turns around and jogs 100 m back to point C in another 1 minute. What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging

(a) from A to B and
(b) from A to C?

Question 22. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be 20 km h–1. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the average speed is 40 km h–1. What is the average speed for Abdul’s trip?

Question 23. A motorboat starting from rest on a lake accelerates in a straight line at a constant rate of 3.0 m s–2 for 8.0 s. How far does the boat travel during this time?

Question 24. A driver of a car travelling at 52 km h–1 applies the brakes and accelerates uniformly in the opposite direction. The car stops in 5 s. Another driver going at 3 km h–1 in another car applies his brakes slowly and stops in 10 s. On the same graph paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars. Which of the two cars travelled farther after the brakes were applied?

Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion

Question 1. Which of the following has more inertia:

(a) a rubber ball and a stone of the same size?
(b) a bicycle and a train?
(c) a fiverupees coin and a one-rupee coin?

Question 2. In the following example, try to identify the number of times the velocity of the ball changes: “A football player kicks a football to another player of his team who kicks the football towards the goal. The goalkeeper of the opposite team collects the football and kicks it towards a player of his own team”. Also identify the agent supplying the force in each case.

Question 3. Explain why some of the leaves may get detached from a tree if we vigorously shake its branch.

Question 4. Why do you fall in the forward direction when a moving bus brakes to a stop and fall backwards when it accelerates from rest?

Question 4. If action is always equal to the reaction, explain how a horse can pull a cart.

Question 5. Explain, why is it difficult for a fireman to hold a hose, which ejects large amounts of water at a high velocity.

Question 6. From a rifle of mass 4 kg, a bullet of mass 50 g is fired with an initial velocity of 35 m s–1. Calculate the initial recoil velocity of the rifle.

Question 7. Two objects of masses 100 g and 200 g are moving along the same line and direction with velocities of 2 m s–1 and 1 m s–1, respectively. They collide and after the collision, the first object moves at a velocity of 1.67 m s–1. Determine the velocity of the second object.

Question 8. An object experiences a net zero external unbalanced force. Is it possible for the object to be travelling with a non-zero velocity? If yes, state the conditions that must be placed on the magnitude and direction of the velocity. If no, provide a reason.

Question 9. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out of it. Explain.

Question 10. Why is it advised to tie any luggage kept on the roof of a bus with a rope?

Question 11. A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on a level ground. After covering a short distance, the ball comes to rest. The ball slows to a stop because

(a) the batsman did not hit the ball hard enough.
(b) velocity is proportional to the force exerted on the ball.
(c) there is a force on the ball opposing the motion.
(d) there is no unbalanced force on the ball, so the ball would want to come to rest.

Question 12. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels a distance of 400 m in 20 s. Find its acceleration. Find the force acting on it if its mass is 7 metric tonnes (Hint: 1 metric tonne = 1000 kg.)

Question 13. A stone of 1 kg is thrown with a velocity of 20 m s–1 across the frozen surface of a lake and comes to rest after travelling a distance of 50 m. What is the force of friction between the stone and the ice?

Question 14. A 8000 kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal track. If the engine exerts a force of 40000 N and the track offers a friction force of 5000 N, then calculate:

(a) the net accelerating force
(b) the acceleration of the train
(c) the force of wagon 1 on wagon 2.

Question 15. An automobile vehicle has a mass of 1500 kg. What must be the force between the vehicle and road if the vehicle is to be stopped with a negative acceleration of 1.7 m s–2?

Question 16. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity v?

(a) (mv)2
(b) mv2
(c) ½ mv2
(d) mv

Question 17. Using a horizontal force of 200 N, we intend to move a wooden cabinet across a floor at a constant velocity. What is the friction force that will be exerted on the cabinet?

Question 18. Two objects, each of mass 1.5 kg, are moving in the same straight line but in opposite directions. The velocity of each

Chapter 10 Gravitation

Question 1. State the universal law of gravitation.

Question 2. Write the formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and an object on the surface of the earth.

Question 3. What do you mean by free fall?

Question 4. What do you mean by acceleration due to gravity?

Question 5. What are the differences between the mass of an object and its weight?

Question 6. Why is the weight of an object on the moon 1 6 th its weight on the earth?

Question 7. Why is it difficult to hold a school bag having a strap made of a thin and strong string?

Question 8. What do you mean by buoyancy?

Question 9. Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of water?

Question 10. You find your mass to be 42 kg on a weighing machine. Is your mass more or less than 42 kg?

Question 11. You have a bag of cotton and an iron bar, each indicating a mass of 100 kg when measured on a weighing machine. In reality, one is heavier than other. Can you say which one is heavier and why?

Question 12. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them is reduced to half ?

Question 13. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to their masses. Why then, a heavy object does not fall faster than a light object?

Question 14. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface? (Mass of the earth is 6 × 1024 kg and radius of the earth is 6.4 × 106 m.)

Question 15. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. Does the earth attract the moon with a force that is greater or smaller or the same as the force with which the moon attracts the earth? Why?

Question 16. If the moon attracts the earth, why does the earth not move towards the moon?

Question 17. What happens to the force between two objects, if

(i) the mass of one object is doubled?
(ii) the distance between the objects is doubled and tripled?
(iii) the masses of both objects are doubled?

Question 18. What is the importance of universal law of gravitation?

Question 19. What is the acceleration of free fall?

Question 20. What do we call the gravitational force between the earth and an object?

Question 21. Amit buys few grams of gold at the poles as per the instruction of one of his friends. He hands over the same when he meets him at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of gold bought? If not, why? [Hint: The value of g is greater at the poles than at the equator.]

Question 22. Why will a sheet of paper fall slower than one that is crumpled into a ball?

Question 23. Gravitational force on the surface of the moon is only 1 6 as strong as gravitational force on the earth. What is the weight in newtons of a 10 kg object on the moon and on the earth?

Question 24. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49 m/s. Calculate

(i) the maximum height to which it rises,
(ii) the total time it takes to return to the surface of the earth.

Question 25. A stone is released from the top of a tower of height 19.6 m. Calculate its final velocity.

Question 26. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. Taking g = 10 m/s2, find the maximum height reached by the stone. What is the net displacement and the total distance covered by the stone?

Question 27. Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth and the Sun, given that the mass of the earth = 6 × 1024 kg and of the Sun = 2 × 1030 kg. The average distance between the two is 1.5 × 1011 m.

Question 28. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time another stone is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/s. Calculate when and where the two stones will meet.

Question 29. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6 s. Find

(a) the velocity with which it was thrown up,
(b) the maximum height it reaches, and
(c) its position after 4 s.

Question 30. In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?

Question 31. Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of water?

Question 32. The volume of 50 g of a substance is 20 cm3. If the density of water is 1 g cm–3, will the substance float or sink?

Question 33. The volume of a 500 g sealed packet is 350 cm3. Will the packet float or sink in water if the density of water is 1 g cm–3? What will be the mass of the water displaced by this packet?

Chapter 11 Work And Energy

Question 1. A force of 7 N acts on an object. The displacement is, say 8 m, in the direction of the force (Fig. 11.3). Let us take it that the force acts on the object through the displacement. What is the work done in this case?

Question 1. When do we say that work is done?

Question 2. Write an expression for the work done when a force is acting on an object in the direction of its displacement.

Question 3. Define 1 J of work.

Question 4. A pair of bullocks exerts a force of 140 N on a plough. The field being ploughed is 15 m long. How much work is
done in ploughing the length of the field?

Question 1. What is the kinetic energy of an object?

Question 2. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.

Question 3. The kinetic energy of an object of mass, m moving with a velocity of 5 m s–1 is 25 J. What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased three times?

Question 1. What is power?

Question 2. Define 1 watt of power.

Question 3. A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10 s. What is its power?

Question 4. Define average power.

Question 1. Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not work is done in the light of your understanding of the term ‘work’.

•  Suma is swimming in a pond.

•  A donkey is carrying a load on its back.

•  A wind-mill is lifting water from a well.

•  A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis

•  An engine is pulling a train.

•  Food grains are getting dried in the sun.

•  A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.

Question 2. An object thrown at a certain angle to the ground moves in a curved path and falls back to the ground. The initial and the final points of the path of the object lie on the same horizontal line. What is the work done by the force of gravity on the object?

Question 3. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.

Question 4. Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 m s–1 to 2 m s–1. Calculate the work done by the force.

Question 5. A mass of 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved to a point B. If the line joining A and B is horizontal, what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force? Explain your answer.

Question 6. The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. Does this violate the law of conservation of energy? Why?

Question 7. What are the various energy transformations that occur when you are riding a bicycle?

Question 8. Does the transfer of energy take place when you push a huge rock with all your might and fail to move it? Where is the energy you spend going?

Question 9. A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during a month. How much energy is this in joules?

Question 10. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half-way down.

Question 11. What is the work done by the force of gravity on a satellite moving round the earth? Justify your answer.

Question 12. Can there be displacement of an object in the absence of any force acting on it? Think. Discuss this question with your friends and teacher.

Question 13. A person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes and gets tired. Has he done some work or not? Justify your answer.

Question 14. An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much energy does it use in 10 hours?

Question 15. Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which occur when we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it to oscillate. Why does the bob eventually come to rest? What happens to its energy eventually? Is it a violation of the law of conservation of energy?

Question 16. An object of mass, m is moving with a constant velocity, v. How much work should be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest?

Question 17. Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 km/h?

Question 18. In each of the following a force, F is acting on an object of mass, m. The direction of displacement is from west to east shown by the longer arrow. Observe the diagrams carefully and state whether the work done by the force is negative, positive or zero.

Question 19. Soni says that the acceleration in an object could be zero even when several forces are acting on it. Do you agree with her? Why?

Question 20. Find the energy in kW h consumed in 10 hours by four devices of power 500 W each.

Question 21. A freely falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground. What happenes to its kinetic energy?

Chapter 12 Sound

Question 1. Explain how sound is produced by your school bell.

Question 2. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?

Question 3. Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced by your friend?

Question 4. Which wave property determines (a) loudness, (b) pitch?

Question 5. Guess which sound has a higher pitch: guitar or car horn?

Question 6. What are wavelength, frequency, time period and amplitude of a sound wave?

Question 7. How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to its speed?

Question 8. Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440 m/s in a given medium.

Question 9. A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source of the sound. What is the time interval between successive compressions from the source?

Question 10. In which of the three media, air, water or iron, does sound travel the fastest at a particular temperature?

Question 11. An echo returned in 3 s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source, given that the speed of sound is 342 m s–1?

Question 12. Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved?

Question 13. What is the audible range of the average human ear?

Question 14. What is the range of frequencies associated with (a) Infrasound? (b) Ultrasound?

Question 15. A submarine emits a sonar pulse, which returns from an underwater cliff in 1.02 s. If the speed of sound in salt water is 1531 m/s, how far away is the cliff?

Question 16. What is sound and how is it produced?

Question 17. Describe with the help of a diagram, how compressions and rarefactions are produced in air near a source of sound.

Question 18. Cite an experiment to show that sound needs a material medium for its propagation.

Question 19. Why is sound wave called a longitudinal wave?

Question 20. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to identify your friend by his voice while sitting with others in a dark
room?

Question 21. Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But thunder is heard a few seconds after the flash is seen, why?

Question 22. A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344 m s–1.

Question 23. Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a stone. Find the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in air and in aluminium to reach the second child.

Question 24. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?

Question 25. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.

Question 26. When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound production remains the same. Do you hear echo sound on a hotter day?

Question 27. Give two practical applications of reflection of sound waves.

Question 28. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given, g = 10 m s–2 and speed of sound = 340 m s–1.

Question 29. A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 m s–1. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?

Question 30. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?

Question 31. What is loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?

Question 32. Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch a prey.

Question 33. How is ultrasound used for cleaning?

Question 34. Explain the working and application of a sonar.

Question 35. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 s later. Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3625 m.

Question 36. Explain how defects in a metal block can be detected using ultrasound.

Question 37. Explain how the human ear works.

Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall Ill

Question 1. State any two conditions essential for good health.

Question 2. State any two conditions essential for being free of disease.

Question 3. Are the answers to the above questions necessarily the same or different? Why? 

Question 4. List any three reasons why you would think that you are sick and ought to see a doctor. If only one of these symptoms were present, would you still go to the doctor? Why or why not?

Question 5. In which of the following case do you think the long-term effects on your health are likely to be most unpleasant?

•  if you get jaundice,

•  if you get lice,

•  if you get acne. Why?

Question 6. Why are we normally advised to take bland and nourishing food when we are sick?

Question 7. What are the different means by which infectious diseases are spread?

Question 8. What precautions can you take in your school to reduce the incidence of infectious diseases?

Question 9. What is immunisation?

Question 10. What are the immunisation programmes available at the nearest health centre in your locality?

Question 11. How many times did you fall ill in the last one year? What were the illnesses?

(a) Think of one change you could make in your habits in order to avoid any of/most of the above illnesses.
(b) Think of one change you would wish for in your surroundings in order to avoid any of/most of the above illnesses.

Question 12. A doctor/nurse/health-worker is exposed to more sick people than others in the community. Find out how she/he avoids getting sick herself/himself.

Question 13. Conduct a survey in your neighbourhood to find out what the three most common diseases are. Suggest three steps that could be taken by your local authorities to bring down the incidence of these diseases.

Question 14. A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that she/he is sick. What would help us to find out

(a) that the baby is sick?
(b) what is the sickness?

Question 15. Under which of the following conditions is a person most likely to fall sick?

(a) when she is recovering from malaria.
(b) when she has recovered from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chicken-pox.
(c) when she is on a four-day fast after recovering from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chicken-pox. Why?

Question 16. Under which of the following conditions are you most likely to fall sick?

(a) when you are taking examinations.
(b) when you have travelled by bus and train for two days.
(c) when your friend is suffering from measles. Why?

Chapter 14 Natural Resources

Question 1. How is our atmosphere different from the atmospheres on Venus and Mars?

Question 2. How does the atmosphere act as a blanket?

Question 3. What causes winds?

Question 4. How are clouds formed?

Question 5. List any three human activities that you think would lead to air pollution.

Question 6. Why do organisms need water?

Question 7. What is the major source of fresh water in the city/town/village where you live?

Question 8. Do you know of any activity which may be polluting this water source?

Question 9. How is soil formed?

Question 10. What is soil erosion?

Question 11. What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion?

Question 12. What are the different states in which water is found during the water cycle?

Question 13. Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen.

Question 14. List any three human activities which would lead to an increase in the carbon dioxide content of air.

Question 15. What is the greenhouse effect?

Question 16. What are the two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere?

Chapter 15 Improvement In Food Resources

Question 1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables?

Question 2. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?

Question 3. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?

Question 4. What are macro-nutrients and why are they called macronutrients?

Question 5. How do plants get nutrients?

Question 6. Compare the use of manure and fertilizers in maintaining soil fertility.

Question 7. Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits? Why?

(a) Farmers use high-quality seeds, do not adopt irrigation or use fertilizers.
(b) Farmers use ordinary seeds, adopt irrigation and use fertilizer.
(c) Farmers use quality seeds, adopt irrigation, use fertilizer and use crop protection measures.

Question 8. Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be preferred for protecting crops?

Question 9. What factors may be responsible for losses of grains during storage?

Question 10. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?

Question 11. What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?

Question 12. What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their management?

Question 13. Discuss the implications of the following statement: “It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low fibre food stuff (which is unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious animal protein food.”

Question 14. How are fish obtained?

Question15. What are the advantages of composite fish culture?

Question 16. What are the desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production?

Question 17. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?

Question 18. Explain any one method of crop production which ensures high yield.

Question 19. Why are manure and fertilizers used in fields?

Question 20. What are the advantages of inter-cropping and crop rotation?

Question 21. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?

Question 22. How do storage grain losses occur?

Question 23. How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers?

Question 24. What are the benefits of cattle farming?

Question 25. For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries and bee-keeping?

Question 26. How do you differentiate between capture fishing, mariculture and aquaculture?

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(Map) Printed World Map Poster

Book Details:

Poster: 1 pages

Publisher: Dreamland Publications (25 January 2012)

Language: English

ISBN-10: 8184511213

ISBN-13: 978-8184511215

Click Here to Buy From Flipkart

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(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (English Elective)

Time allowed: 3 Hrs

Maximum Marks: 100

The Question paper is divided into three sections:

Section A – Reading 20 marks
Section B – Writing and Grammar 40 marks
Section C – Literature 40 marks

General Instructions:

i. All the questions are compulsory.
ii. You may attempt any section at a time.
iii. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

SECTION-A

(Reading : 20)

1 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :

1. The Ring at Casterbridge was merely the local name of one of the finest Roman amphitheaters, if not the very finest remaining in Britain. Casterbridge announced old Rome in every street, alley, and precinct. It looked Roman, bespoke the art of Rome, concealed dead men of Rome. It was impossible to dig more than a foot or two deep about the town fields and gardens without coming upon some tall soldier or other of the Empire, who had laid there in his silent unobtrusive rest for a space of fifteen hundred years.

2. Imaginative inhabitants, who would have felt an unpleasantness at the discovery of a comparatively modern skeleton in their gardens, were quite unmoved by these hoary shapes. They had lived so long ago, their time was so unlike the present, their hopes and motives were so widely removed from ours, that between them and the living there seemed to stretch a gulf too wide for even a spirit to pass. The Amphitheater was a huge circular enclosure, with a notch at opposite extremities of its diameter north and south. It was to Casterbridge what the ruined Coliseum is to modern Rome, and was nearly of the same magnitude. The dusk of evening was the proper hour at which a true impression of this suggestive place could be received. Standing in the middle of the arena at that time there by degrees became apparent its real vastness, which a cursory view from the summit at noon-day was apt to obscure.

3. Melancholy, impressive, lonely, yet accessible from every part of the town, the historic circle was the frequent spot for appointments of a furtive kind. Apart from the sanguinary nature of the games originally played therein, such incidents attached to its past as these: that for scores of years the towngallows had stood at one corner; that in 1705 a woman who had murdered her husband was half-strangled and then burnt there in the presence of ten thousand spectators. In addition to these old tragedies, pugilistic encounters almost to the death had come off down to recent dates in that secluded arena, entirely invisible to the outside world save by climbing to the top of the enclosure, which few townspeople in the daily round of their lives ever took the trouble to do.

4. Some boys had latterly tried to impart gaiety to the ruin by using the central arena as a cricket-ground. But the game usually languished for the aforesaid reason - the dismal privacy which the earthen circle enforced, shutting out every appreciative passer's vision, every commendatory remark from outsiders - everything, except the sky; and to play at games in such circumstances was like acting to an empty house. Henchard had chosen this spot for meeting his long-lost wife. As Mayor of the town, with a reputation to keep up, he could not invite her to come to his house till some definite course had been decided on.(498 words) Adapted from: The Mayor of Casterbridge, Thomas Hardy (1886)

1.1 On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the following questions briefly:

(a) What was the name given by the locals to the ancient Amphitheatre at Casterbridge?
(b) What was the attitude of the local residents to the unearthed remains of dead Romans?
(c) Over the years what had the amphitheater been used for by the locals?
(d) Why had the boys stopped using the amphitheater for their game of cricket?
(e) Why did Henchard want to keep secret his meeting with his long-lost wife?

1.2 Choose the meaning of the words/phrases given below from the given options:

(a) Concealed (Para 1))

(i) silent
(ii) hidden
(iii) dead
(iv) lonely

(b) Hoary (Para 2)

(i) unimaginative
(ii) buried
(iii) ancient
(iv) mummified

(c) Pugilistic encounters (Para 3)

(i) vindictive meetings
(ii) powerful fights
(iii) boxing matches
(iv) brave acts

(d) Secluded (Para 3)

(i) one
(ii) private
(iii) close
(iv) hidden

(e) Sanguinary

(i) blood-thirsty
(ii) strange
(iii) peculiar
(iv) vampire

2 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: Across the Kashmir Valley and over the famous Zoji La pass lies Ladakh - the Land of High Passes. It is a magical land, completely different from the green landscape of many other parts of the Himalayas. It is nature at an extreme. A land of freezing winds and burning hot sunlight, Ladakh is a cold desert lying in the rain shadow of the Great Himalayas and other smaller ranges. Little rain and snow reaches this dry area, where natural forces have created a fantastic landscape.

This region once formed part of the erstwhile Kingdom of Ladakh, believed to have been inhabited by the early colonizers of Ladakh - the Indo-Aryan Mons from across the Himalayan range, the Darads from the extreme western Himalayas, and the itinerant nomads from the Tibetan highlands. Also, its valleys, by virtue of their contiguity with Kashmir, Kishtwar and Kulu, served as the initial receptacles of successive ethnic and cultural waves emanating from across the Great Himalayan range. Thus, while the Mons are believed to have carried north-Indian Buddhism to these highland valleys, the Darads and Baltis of the lower Indus Valley are credited with the introduction of farming and the Tibetans with the tradition of herding. The aridity of Ladakh is due to its location in the rain shadow area of the Great Himalayas, as well as because of its elevation and the radiation of heat from the bare soil. The most striking physical feature of Ladakh, however, is the parallelism of its mountain ranges. In Ladakh, large rivers and their tributaries have carved deep gorges far below their steep banks. However, their water is not of much use, as the terraced fields lie high above the gorges. The region is extremely dry, with rainfall as low as 10 cm each year. These valleys sustain an exclusively agrarian population of about 80,000 people who cultivate the land available along the course of the drainage system, wherever sources for artificial irrigation are available. The majority of the population is Muslim. Descendants of missionaries of Kashmir who introduced Islam, locally called Aghas, still hold sway over the population, perpetuating the faith even as ancient folk traditions with Buddhist and animistic undertones are palpably present. Many folk traditions, particularly those connected with the agricultural cycle, are still followed with subdued reverence.

During the last decade a gradual change in the tourist's perception of Ladakh has come about, thanks to the growing mystique of the Himalayas and a burgeoning interest in adventure tourism worldwide. As a result of this change in perception there has been a steady increase in the number of tourists to the Western flank of Ladakh, which comprises several river valleys. Chief among these are the spectacular valleys of Suru and Zanskar, nestling along the foothills of the main range of the Greater Himalayas; the smaller lateral valleys of Dras and Wakha-Mulbek, as also of Chiktan (still in the restricted zone) constitute important subsidaries. Drained and formed by the southeastern tributaries of the high Indus, these valleys constitute the district of Kargil.

The itinerary of the average tourist to Ladakh begins with a tour of Leh, the ancient capital and principal township of Ladakh. It invariably includes visits to a selection of monasteries located along a stretch of the Central Indus Valley, between the spectacular monastery of Lamayuru in the west and the prestigious establishment of Hemis in the east. Some take to trekking along the lateral valleys, especially in Markha, but few venture out of the confines of  the central Indus valley, which represents Ladakh's heartland.

(a) On the basis of your understanding of the above passage make notes on it using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary-minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it.

(b) Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words.

SECTION : B

(Writing and Grammar )

(Marks:40)

3 The Drama Club of KMN International School is staging an adaptation of the popular Shakespearean tragedy, Julius Caesar, the proceeds of which will be used for a charitable cause. Design a visually appealing poster for this in about 50-60 words. Include all relevant details.

OR

You are Komal/Karan, the Sports Captain of Rose Public School, Chandigarh. Your school has decided to allow students to use the swimming pool during the summer vacations. There will also be specialized coaching for beginners. Draft a notice in about 50-60 words informing students about this. Include all relevant details.

4 You are Ramesh/Rashmi of 151 Chandan Nagar, Delhi. Write a letter in about 120-150 words to the Manager, Elvys Crockery Store, Delhi, placing an order of crockery and cutlery for your newly opened restaurant.

OR

You are Karuna/Kailash staying at B-101, Yamuna Vihar, Delhi. You find it inspiring that hill stations in India, like Ooty implement a strict ban on polythene bags which helps in preserving the natural beauty of the place. Write a letter in about 120-150 words to the Editor of a national daily expressing your views on how people in the city can learn from this and be more active in prevention of environmental degradation. Also suggest ways to mobilise city dwellers for being eco-friendly.

5 You are Neerja/Nitin, a reporter with ABVP News India, posted at Ghaziabad. You are one of the first group of reporters who reached the accident site near the Gajraula toll booth where a luxury bus with 54 foreign passengers on board from Delhi met with a head on collision with a water tanker. Write a report in about 150-200 words for the newspaper giving details of loss of life and damage caused.

OR

You are Satish/Saba, associated with an NGO which works to uplift the socioeconomic conditions of child labourers by counselling their parents and helping them to go to school. Write an article in about 150–200 words on the role of literacy in eradicating the evil practice of child labour from society.

6 On the occasion of World Health Day prepare a speech in about 150-200 words for the morning assembly on healthy eating habits in the face of a fast paced stressful lifestyle.

OR

Your school has invited you to address your former school mates during a special assembly after you have successfully cleared the UPSC Civil Services Examination with top honours. Prepare your speech in 150-200 words, motivating and giving them tips on how to achieve success in the examination.

(A) Rearrange the following words and phrases into meaningful sentences.

(a) courage / history/ women / change/have the / mankind’s/ to /the/course of.

(b) equal/ women/ no true / decision making/ at all/there can/ governance and development / participation of / levels of/ be /without

(c) limits/ for/success/ any/ women/I / key/think/ set/ the /to/ is/ to not

(B) The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Write the error and the correction in your answer book against the correct blank number. Underline the word you have supplied.

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(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (English Elective NCERT)
 

Time Allowed: 3 hours

Marks: 100

General instructions:

1. Question nos. 1-4 are compulsory
2. Attempt either Question 5 or 6
3. Your answer should be to the point. Adhere to the word limit given.

SECTION – A

READING – 20 MARKS

Q.1 a) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

1. The most spectacular and in many ways the most fundamental social change that the Gandhian movement effected in India is in respect of the position of women. Undoubtedly, women in ancient India enjoyed a much higher status than their descendents in the 18th and 19th century. From the earliest days, there have been many notable women in India – poets, scholars, administrators, social reformers and leaders of various movements. In fact, the 18th century produced women like Ahalyabai Holkar whose administration of Indore state was considered a model for all of India.

2. Today’s woman is a highly self directed person, a life to the sense of her dignity and the importance of her functions in the private domestic domain and the public domain of the world of work. It has been brought to light across the globe that no enduring solution of society’s most threatening social, economic, environmental and political problems could be found without the participation and empowerment of women. The 1995 World Summit for Social Development had also emphasized the pivotal role of women in eradicating poverty and mending the social fabric. The Constitution of India had conferred on women equal rights and opportunities – political, social, educational and of employment. However, oppressive traditions, superstitions, exploitations and stereo typed mind sets keep them away from enjoying the rights and opportunities bestowed on them. One of the major reasons is the lack of literacy and awareness among women. Education is the main instrument through which we can narrow down the prevailing inequality and accelerate the process of economic and political change in the status of women.

3. The role of women in a society is very important. Women’s education is the key to a better life in the future. A World Bank study says that educating girls is not a charity; it is good economics. The report also goes on to state that the economic and social returns on investments in education for the girls are substantial and probably greater than those for boys. As the female population forms nearly half of the national population, the poor performance on the front of female literacy considerably affects the human development index of the nation. Society would progress only if the status of women is respected and the presence of an educated woman in the family would ensure education of the family itself. Hence, education and empowerment of women are closely related.

4. Swami Vivekananda rightly said, “It is impossible to think about the welfare of the world unless the condition of women is improved. It is impossible for a bird to fly on only one wing.” Women are not born, but made. It would  only be apt to analyze the position and space Indian women occupy today, and comparing it to the times sixty years ago when the country had just gained independence. With the women participating in nationalist movements to being pushed into the domestic household space, to their resurgence as the super-woman today, women in our country have seen it all.

5. Women of India have started recognizing their true potential by breaking traditional barriers and earning a respectable position in the society. There is no arena which remains unconquered by them, be political, sport, technology, entertainment or even innovators. The modern Indian woman does not let social constraints to keep her behind, but prioritizes her education, her home and her career before anything else. Today, she is so deft and self sufficient that she can be easily called a super-woman juggling many fronts single handedly. They are proving their metal not only on the home front but also in their respective professions. They are joining universities and colleges in large numbers and entering specialized professional fields like engineering, medicine, space, research and development and the defense forces.

6. Thus, the path towards total gender empowerment may be full of potholes but over the years women have made great strides in many areas with notable progress in reducing the gender gap.

Questions:-

(a) What keeps women away from enjoying the rights and opportunities due to them?
(b) How does the education of women contribute to a nation’s economics?
(c) In what ways can today’s Indian women be called ‘super-women’?
(d) How has the modern Indian woman been able to bridge the gender gap?
(e) Identify words from the passage which mean the following –

(i) Amazing (para 1)
(ii) Hasten (para 2)
(iii) Revival (para 4)
(f) What does ‘proving their metal’ phrase mean?
(g) In what way is education and empowerment of women closely related?
(h) Justify this statement in its contextual terms – ‘It is impossible for a bird to fly only on one wing’.

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NCERT Mathematics Question Paper (Class - 9)

(Mathematics) Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry

EXERCISE 3.1 

Question 1. How will you describe the position of a table lamp on your study table to another person?

Question 2. (Street Plan) : A city has two main roads which cross each other at the centre of the city. These two roads are along the North-South direction and East-West direction.

(i) The perpendicular distance of the point P from the y - axis measured along the positive direction of the x - axis is PN = OM = 4 units.
(ii) The perpendicular distance of the point P from the x - axis measured along the positive direction of the y - axis is PM = ON = 3 units.
(iii) The perpendicular distance of the point Q from the y - axis measured along the negative direction of the x - axis is OR = SQ = 6 units.
(iv) The perpendicular distance of the point Q from the x - axis measured along the negative direction of the y - axis is OS = RQ = 2 units. Now, using these distances, how can we describe the points so that there is no confusion? We write the coordinates of a point, using the following conventions:

(i) The x - coordinate of a point is its perpendicular distance from the y - axis measured along the x -axis (positive along the positive direction of the x - axis and negative along the negative direction of the x - axis). For the point P, it is + 4 and for Q, it is – 6. The x - coordinate is also called the abscissa.
(ii) The y - coordinate of a point is its perpendicular distance from the x - axis measured along the y - axis (positive along the positive direction of the y - axis and negative along the negative direction of the y - axis). For the point P, it is + 3 and for Q, it is –2. The y - coordinate is also called the ordinate.
(iii) In stating the coordinates of a point in the coordinate plane, the x - coordinate comes first, and then the y - coordinate. We place the coordinates in brackets. Hence, the coordinates of P are (4, 3) and the coordinates of Q are (– 6, – 2). Note that the coordinates describe a point in the plane uniquely. (3, 4) is not the same as (4, 3).

EXERCISE 3.2

Question 1.Write the answer of each of the following questions:

(i) What is the name of horizontal and the vertical lines drawn to determine the position of any point in the Cartesian plane?
(ii) What is the name of each part of the plane formed by these two lines?
(iii) Write the name of the point where these two lines intersect.

Questions 2. See Fig.3.14, and write the following:

(i) The coordinates of B.
(ii) The coordinates of C.
(iii) The point identified by the coordinates (–3, –5).
(iv) The point identified by the coordinates (2, – 4).
(v) The abscissa of the point D.
(vi) The ordinate of the point H.
(vii) The coordinates of the point L.
(viii) The coordinates of the point M.

(Mathematics) Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables

EXERCISE 4.1

Question 1. The cost of a notebook is twice the cost of a pen. Write a linear equation in two variables to represent this statement. (Take the cost of a notebook to be Rs x and that of a pen to be Rs y).

Question 2. Express the following linear equations in the form ax + by + c = 0 and indicate the values of a, b and c in each case:

(i) 2x + 3y = 9.35
(ii) x – 5 y – 10 = 0
(iii) –2x + 3y = 6
(iv) x = 3y
(v) 2x = –5y (
vi) 3x + 2 = 0
(vii) y – 2 = 0
(viii) 5 = 2x

EXERCISE 4.2

Question 1.Which one of the following options is true, and why? y = 3x + 5 has

(i) a unique solution
(ii) only two solutions
(iii) infinitely many solutions

Question 2. Write four solutions for each of the following equations:

(i) 2x + y = 7
(ii) πx + y = 9
(iii) x = 4y

Question 3. Check which of the following are solutions of the equation x – 2y = 4 and which are not:

(i) (0, 2)
(ii) (2, 0)
(iii) (4, 0)
(iv) ( 2 , 4 2)
(v) (1, 1)

Question 4. Find the value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.

EXERCISE 4.3

Question 1. Draw the graph of eachof the following linear equations in two variables:

(i) x + y = 4
(ii) x – y = 2
(iii) y = 3x
(iv) 3 = 2x + y

Question 2. Give the equations of two lines passing through (2, 14). How many more such lines are there, and why?

Question 3. If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = ax + 7, find the value of a.


Question 4. The taxi fare in a city is as follows: For the first kilometre, the fare is Rs 8 and for the subsequent distance it is Rs 5 per km. Taking the distance covered as x km and total fare as Rs y, write a linear equation for this information, and draw its graph.

Question 5. From the choices given below, choose the equation whose graphs are given in Fig. 4.6 and Fig. 4.7. For Fig. 4. 6 For Fig. 4.7

(i) y = x
(i) y = x + 2
(ii) x + y = 0
(ii) y = x – 2
(iii) y = 2x
(iii) y = –x + 2
(iv) 2 + 3y = 7x
(iv) x + 2y = 6

Question 6. If the work done by a body on application of a constant force is directly proportional to the distance travelled by the body, express this in the form of an equation in two variables and draw the graph of the same by taking the constant force as 5 units. Also read from the graph the work done when the distance travelled by the body is (i) 2 units (ii) 0 unit

Question 7. Yamini and Fatima, two students of Class IX of a school, together contributed Rs 100 towards the Prime Minister’s Relief Fund to help the earthquake victims. Write a linear equation which satisfies this data. (You may take their contributions as Rs x and Rs y.) Draw the graph of the same.

Question 8. In countries like USA and Canada, temperature is measured in Fahrenheit, whereas in countries like India, it is measured in Celsius. Here is a linear equation that converts Fahrenheit to Celsius: F = 9 C + 32 5

(i) Draw the graph of the linear equation above using Celsius for x-axis and Fahrenheit for y-axis.
(ii) If the temperature is 30°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
(iii) If the temperature is 95°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(iv) If the temperature is 0°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit and if the temperature is 0°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(v) Is there a temperature which is numerically the same in both Fahrenheit and Celsius? If yes, find it.

EXERCISE 4.4

Question 1. Give the geometric representations of y = 3 as an equation

(i) in one variable
(ii) in two variables

Question 2. Give the geometric representations of 2x + 9 = 0 as an equation

(i) in one variable
(ii) in two variables

(Mathematics) Chapter 7 Triangles

EXERCISE 7.1

Question 1. In quadrilateral ACBD, AC = AD and AB bisects ∠ A (see Fig. 7.16). Show that Δ ABC Δ ABD. What can you say about BC and BD?

Question 2 . ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AD = BC and ∠ DAB = ∠ CBA (see Fig. 7.17). Prove that

(i) Δ ABD Δ BAC
(ii) BD = AC
(iii) ∠ ABD = ∠ BAC.

Question 3. AD and BC are equal perpendiculars to a line segment AB (see Fig. 7.18). Show that CD bisects AB.

Question 4. l and m are two parallel lines intersected by another pair of parallel lines p and q (see Fig. 7.19). Show that Δ ABC Δ CDA.

Question 5. line l is the bisector of an angle ∠ A and B is any point on l. BP and BQ are perpendiculars from B to the arms of ∠ A (see Fig. 7.20). Show that:

(i) Δ APB Δ AQB
(ii) BP = BQ or B is equidistant from the arms of ∠ A.

Question 6. In Fig. 7.21, AC = AE, AB = AD and ∠ BAD = ∠ EAC. Show that BC = DE.

Question 7 . AB is a line segment and P is its mid-point. D and E are points on the same side of AB such that ∠ BAD = ∠ ABE and ∠ EPA = ∠ DPB (see Fig. 7.22). Show that

(i) Δ DAP Δ EBP
(ii) AD = BE

Question 8. In right triangle ABC, right angled at C, M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. C is joined to M and produced to a point D such that DM = CM. Point D is joined to point B (see Fig. 7.23). Show that:

(i) Δ AMC Δ BMD
(ii) ∠ DBC is a right angle.
(iii) Δ DBC Δ ACB
(iv) CM = 1 2 AB

EXERCISE 7.2

Question 1. In an isosceles triangle ABC, with AB = AC, the bisectors of ∠ B and ∠ C intersect each other at O. Join A to O. Show that :

(i) OB = OC
(ii) AO bisects ∠ A

Question 2. In Δ ABC, AD is the perpendicular bisector of BC (see Fig. 7.30). Show that Δ ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC.

Question 3. ABC is an isosceles triangle in which altitudes BE and CF are drawn to equal sides AC and AB respectively (see Fig. 7.31). Show that these altitudes are equal.

Question 4. ABC is a triangle in which altitudes BE and CF to sides AC and AB are equal (see Fig. 7.32). Show that

(i) Δ ABE Δ ACF
(ii) AB = AC, i.e., ABC is an isosceles triangle.

Question 5. ABC and DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC (see Fig. 7.33). Show that ∠ ABD = ∠ ACD.

Question 6. ΔABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC. Side BA is produced to D such that AD = AB (see Fig. 7.34). Show that ∠ BCD is a right angle. 7. ABC is a right angled triangle in which ∠ A = 90° and AB = AC. Find ∠ B and ∠ C.

Question 7. Show that the angles of an equilateral triangle are 60°each.

EXERCISE 7.3

Question 1. Δ ABC and Δ DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC and vertices A and D are on the same side of BC (see Fig. 7.39). If AD is extended to intersect BC at P, show that

(i) Δ ABD Δ ACD
(ii) Δ ABP Δ ACP
(iii) AP bisects ∠ A as well as ∠ D.
(iv) AP is the perpendicular bisector of BC.

Question 2. AD is an altitude of an isosceles triangle ABC in which AB = AC. Show that

(i) AD bisects BC
(ii) AD bisects ∠ A.

Question 3. Two sides AB and BC and median AM of one triangle ABC are respectively equal to sides PQ and QR and median PN of Δ PQR (see Fig. 7.40). Show that:

(i) Δ ABM Δ PQN
(ii) Δ ABC Δ PQR

Question 4. BE and CF are two equal altitudes of a triangle ABC. Using RHS congruence rule, prove that the triangle ABC is isosceles.

Question 5. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC. Draw AP ⊥ BC to show that ∠ B = ∠ C.

EXERCISE 7.4

Question 1. Show that in a right angled triangle, the hypotenuse is the longest side.

Question 2. In Fig. 7.48, sides AB and AC of Δ ABC are extended to points P and Q respectively. Also, ∠ PBC < ∠ QCB. Show that AC > AB. 3. In Fig. 7.49, ∠ B < ∠ A and ∠ C < ∠ D. Show that AD < BC.

Question 3. AB and CD are respectively the smallest and longest sides of a quadrilateral ABCD (see Fig. 7.50). Show that ∠ A > ∠ C and ∠ B > ∠ D.

Question 4. In Fig 7.51, PR > PQ and PS bisects ∠ QPR. Prove that ∠ PSR > ∠ PSQ.

Question 5. Show that of all line segments drawn from a given point not on it, the perpendicular line segment is the shortest.

EXERCISE 7.5

Question 1 . ABC is a triangle. Locate a point in the interior of Δ ABC which is equidistant from all the vertices of Δ ABC.

Question 2. In a triangle locate a point in its interior which is equidistant from all the sides of the triangle.

Question 3. In a huge park, people are concentrated at three points (see Fig. 7.52):

A : where there are different slides and swings for children,
B : near which a man-made lake is situated,
C : which is near to a large parking and exit. Where should an icecream parlour be set up so that maximum number of persons can approach it? (Hint : The parlour should be equidistant from A, B and C)

Question 4. Complete the hexagonal and star shaped Rangolies [see Fig. 7.53(i) and (ii)] by filling them with as many equilateral triangles of side 1 cm as you can. Count the number of triangles in each case. Which has more triangles?

(Mathematics) Chapter 8 Quadrilaterals

EXERCISE 8.1

Question 1. The angles of quadrilateral are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 9 : 13. Find all the angles of the quadrilateral.

Question 2. If the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal, then show that it is a rectangle.

Question 3. Show that if the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other at right angles, then it is a rhombus.

Question 4. Show that the diagonals of a square are equal and bisect each other at right angles.

Question 5. Show that if the diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal and bisect each other at right angles, then it is a square.

Question 6. Diagonal AC of a parallelogram ABCD bisects ∠ A (see Fig. 8.19). Show that

(i) it bisects ∠ C also
(ii) ABCD is a rhombus.

Question 7. ABCD is a rhombus. Show that diagonal AC bisects ∠ A as well as ∠ C and diagonal BD bisects ∠ B as well as ∠ D.

Question 8. ABCD is a rectangle in which diagonal AC bisects ∠ A as well as ∠ C. Show that:

(i) ABCD is a square
(ii) diagonal BD bisects ∠ B as well as ∠ D.

Question 9. In parallelogram ABCD, two points P and Q are taken on diagonal BD such that DP = BQ (see Fig. 8.20). Show that:

(i) Δ APD Δ CQB
(ii) AP = CQ
(iii) Δ AQB Δ CPD
(iv) AQ = CP
(v) APCQ is a parallelogram

Question 10. ABCD is a parallelogram and AP and CQ are perpendiculars from vertices A and C on diagonal BD (see Fig. 8.21). Show that :

(i) Δ APB Δ CQD
(ii) AP = CQ

Question 11. In Δ ABC and Δ DEF, AB = DE, AB || DE, BC = EF and BC || EF. Vertices A, B and C are joined to vertices D, E and F respectively (see Fig. 8.22). Show that :

(i) quadrilateral ABED is a parallelogram
(ii) quadrilateral BEFC is a parallelogram
(iii) AD || CF and AD = CF
(iv) quadrilateral ACFD is a parallelogram
(v) AC = DF
(vi) Δ ABC Δ DEF.

Question 12. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and AD = BC (see Fig. 8.23). Show that:

(i) ∠ A = ∠ B
(ii) ∠ C = ∠ D
(iii) Δ ABC Δ BAD
(iv) diagonal AC = diagonal BD [Hint : Extend AB and draw a line through C parallel to DA intersecting AB produced at E.]

EXERCISE 8.2

Question 1. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which P, Q, R and S are mid-points of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA (see Fig 8.29). AC is a diagonal. Show that :

(i) SR || AC and SR = 1 2 AC
(ii) PQ = SR
(iii) PQRS is a parallelogram.

Question 2. ABCD is a rhombus and P, Q, R and S are ©wthe mid-points of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Show that the quadrilateral PQRS is a rectangle.

Question 3. ABCD is a rectangle and P, Q, R and S are mid-points of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Show that the quadrilateral PQRS is a rhombus.

Question 4. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, BD is a diagonal and E is the mid-point of AD. A line is drawn through E parallel to AB intersecting BC at F (see Fig. 8.30). Show that F is the mid-point of BC.

Question 5. In a parallelogram ABCD, E and F are the mid-points of sides AB and CD respectively (see Fig. 8.31). Show that the line segments AF and EC trisect the diagonal BD.

Question 6. Show that the line segments joining the mid-points of the opposite sides of a quadrilateral bisect each other.

Question 7. ABC is a triangle right angled at C. A line through the mid-point M of hypotenuse AB and parallel to BC intersects AC at D. Show that:

(i) D is the mid-point of AC
(ii) MD ⊥ AC
(iii) CM = MA = 1 2 AB

(Mathematics) Chapter 9 Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles

EXERCISE 9.1

Question1. Which of the following figures lie on the same base and between the same parallels. In such a case, write the common base and the two parallels. 

EXERCISE 9.2

Question 1. In Fig. 9.15, ABCD is a parallelogram, AE ⊥ DC and CF ⊥ AD. If AB = 16 cm, AE = 8 cm and CF = 10 cm, find AD.

Question 2. If E,F,G and H are respectively the mid-points of the sides of a parallelogram ABCD, show that ar (EFGH) = 1 ar (ABCD) 2 .

Question 3. P and Q are any two points lying on the sides DC and AD respectively of a parallelogram ABCD. Show that ar (APB) = ar (BQC).

Question 4. In Fig. 9.16, P is a point in the interior of a parallelogram ABCD. Show that:

(i) ar (APB) + ar (PCD) = 1 ar (ABCD) 2
(ii) ar (APD) + ar (PBC) = ar (APB) + ar (PCD) [Hint : Through P, draw a line parallel to AB.]

Question 5. . In Fig. 9.17, PQRS and ABRS are parallelograms and X is any point on side BR. Show that

(i) ar (PQRS) = ar (ABRS)
(ii) ar (AX S) = 1 ar (PQRS)

Question 6. A farmer was having a field in the form of a parallelogram PQRS. She took any point A on RS and joined it to points P and Q. In how many parts the fields is divided? What are the shapes of these parts? The farmer wants to sow wheat and pulses in equal portions of the field separately. How should she do it?

EXERCISE 9.3

Question 1. In Fig.9.23, E is any point on median AD of a Δ ABC. Show that ar (ABE) = ar (ACE).

Question 2. In a triangle ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD. Show that ar (BED) = 1 ar(ABC) 4 .

Question 2. Show that the diagonals of a parallelogram divide it into four triangles of equal area.

Question 4. In Fig. 9.24, ABC and ABD are two triangles on the same base AB. If line- segment CD is bisected by AB at O, show that ar(ABC) = ar (ABD).

Question 5. D, E and F are respectively the mid-points of the sides BC, CA and AB of a Δ ABC. Show that

(i) BDEF is a parallelogram.
(ii) ar (DEF) = 1 4 ar (ABC)
(iii) ar (BDEF) = 1 2 ar (ABC)

Question 6. In Fig. 9.25, diagonals AC and BD of quadrilateral ABCD intersect at O such that OB = OD. If AB = CD, then show that:

(i) ar (DOC) = ar (AOB)
(ii) ar (DCB) = ar (ACB)
(iii) DA || CB or ABCD is a parallelogram. [Hint : From D and B, draw perpendiculars to AC.]

Question 7. D and E are points on sides AB and AC respectively of Δ ABC such that ar (DBC) = ar (EBC). Prove that DE || BC.

Question 8. XY is a line parallel to side BC of a triangle ABC. If BE || AC and CF || AB meet XY at E and F respectively, show that ar (ABE) = ar (ACF)

Question 9. The side AB of a parallelogram ABCD is produced to any point P. A line through A and parallel to CP meets CB produced at Q and then parallelogram PBQR is completed (see Fig. 9.26). Show that ar (ABCD) = ar (PBQR). [Hint : Join AC and PQ. Now compare ar (ACQ) and ar (APQ).]

Question 10. Diagonals AC and BD of a trapezium ABCD with AB || DC intersect each other at O. Prove that ar (AOD) = ar (BOC).

Question 11. In Fig. 9.27, ABCDE is a pentagon. A line through B parallel to AC meets DC produced at F. Show that

(i) ar (ACB) = ar (ACF)
(ii) ar (AEDF) = ar (ABCDE)

Question 12. A villager Itwaari has a plot of land of the shape of a quadrilateral. The Gram Panchayat of the village decided to take over some portion of his plot from one of the corners to construct a Health Centre. Itwaari agrees to the above proposal with the condition that he should be given equal amount of land in lieu of his land adjoining his plot so as to form a triangular plot. Explain how this proposal will be implemented.

Question 13. ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC. A line parallel to AC intersects AB at X and BC at Y. Prove that ar (ADX) = ar (ACY). [Hint : Join CX.]

Question 14. In Fig.9.28, AP || BQ || CR. Prove that ar (AQC) = ar (PBR).

Question 15. . Diagonals AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect at O in such a way that ar (AOD) = ar (BOC). Prove that ABCD is a trapezium.

Question 16. In Fig.9.29, ar (DRC) = ar (DPC) and ar (BDP) = ar (ARC). Show that both the quadrilaterals ABCD and DCPR are trapeziums.

EXERCISE 9.4

Question 1. Parallelogram ABCD and rectangle ABEF are on the same base AB and have equal areas. Show that the perimeter of the parallelogram is greater than that of the rectangle.

Question 2. In Fig. 9.30, D and E are two points on BC such that BD = DE = EC. Show that ar (ABD) = ar (ADE) = ar (AEC). Can you now answer the question that you have left in the ‘Introduction’ of this chapter, whether the field of Budhia has been actually divided into three parts of equal area? triangles ABD, ADE and AEC of equal areas. In the same way, by dividing BC into n equal parts and joining the points of division so obtained to the opposite vertex of BC, you can divide ΔABC into n triangles of equal areas.]

Question 3. In Fig. 9.31, ABCD, DCFE and ABFE are parallelograms. Show that ar (ADE) = ar (BCF).

Question 4. In Fig. 9.32, ABCD is a parallelogram and BC is produced to a point Q such that AD = CQ. If AQ intersect DC at P, show that ar (BPC) = ar (DPQ). [Hint : Join AC.]

Question 5. In Fig.9.33, ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. If AE intersects BC at F, show that:

(i) ar (BDE) = 1 4 ar (ABC)
(ii) ar (BDE) = 1 2 ar (BAE)
(iii) ar (ABC) = 2 ar (BEC)
(iv) ar (BFE) = ar (AFD)
(v) ar (BFE) = 2 ar (FED)
(vi) ar (FED) = 1 8 ar (AFC) [Hint : Join EC and AD. Show that BE || AC and DE || AB, etc.]

Question 6. Diagonals AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at P. Show that ar (APB) × ar (CPD) = ar (APD) × ar (BPC). [Hint : From A and C, draw perpendiculars to BD.]

Question 7. P and Q are respectively the mid-points of sides AB and BC of a triangle ABC and R is the mid-point of AP, show that :

(i) ar (PRQ) = 1 2 ar (ARC)
(ii) ar (RQC) = 3 8 ar (ABC)
(iii) ar (PBQ) = ar (ARC)

Question 8. In Fig. 9.34, ABC is a right triangle right angled at A. BCED, ACFG and ABMN are squares on the sides BC, CA and AB respectively. Line segment AX ⊥ DE meets BC at Y. Show that:

(i) Δ MBC Δ ABD
(ii) ar (BYXD) = 2 ar (MBC)
(iii) ar (BYXD) = ar (ABMN)
(iv) Δ FCB Δ ACE
(v) ar (CYXE) = 2 ar (FCB)
(vi) ar (CYXE) = ar (ACFG)
(vii) ar (BCED) = ar (ABMN) + ar (ACFG) Note : Result
(vii) is the famous Theorem of Pythagoras. You shall learn a simpler proof of this theorem in Class X.

(Mathematics) Chapter 10 Circles

EXERCISE 10.1

Question 1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The centre of a circle lies in of the circle. (exterior/ interior)
(ii) A point, whose distance from the centre of a circle is greater than its radius lies in of the circle. (exterior/ interior)
(iii) The longest chord of a circle is a of the circle.
(iv) An arc is a when its ends are the ends of a diameter.
(v) Segment of a circle is the region between an arc and of the circle.
(vi) A circle divides the plane, on which it lies, in parts.

Question 2. Write True or False: Give reasons for your answers.

(i) Line segment joining the centre to any point on the circle is a radius of the circle.
(ii) A circle has only finite number of equal chords.
(iii) If a circle is divided into three equal arcs, each is a major arc.
(iv) A chord of a circle, which is twice as long as its radius, is a diameter of the circle.
(v) Sector is the region between the chord and its corresponding arc.
(vi) A circle is a plane figure.

EXERCISE 10.2

Question 1. Recall that two circles are congruent if they have the same radii. Prove that equal chords of congruent circles subtend equal angles at their centres.

Question 2. Prove that if chords of congruent circles subtend equal angles at their centres, then the chords are equal.

EXERCISE 10.3

Question 1. Draw different pairs of circles. How many points does each pair have in common? What is the maximum number of common points?

Question 2. Suppose you are given a circle. Give a construction to find its centre.

Question 3. If two circles intersect at two points, prove that their centres lie on the perpendicular

EXERCISE 10.4

Question 1. Two circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm intersect at two points and the distance between their centres is 4 cm. Find the length of the common chord.

Question 2. If two equal chords of a circle intersect within the circle, prove that the segments of one chord are equal to corresponding segments of the other chord.

Question 3. If two equal chords of a circle intersect within the circle, prove that the line joining the point of intersection to the centre makes equal angles with the chords.

Question 4. If a line intersects two concentric circles (circles with the same centre) with centre O at A, B, C and D, prove that AB = CD (see Fig. 10.25).

Question 5. Three girls Reshma, Salma and Mandip are playing a game by standing on a circle of radius 5m drawn in a park. Reshma throws a ball to Salma, Salma to Mandip, Mandip to Reshma. If the distance between Reshma and Salma and between Salma and Mandip is 6m each, what is the distance between Reshma and Mandip?

Question 6. A circular park of radius 20m is situated in a colony. Three boys Ankur, Syed and David are sitting at equal distance on its boundary each having a toy telephone in his hands to talk each other. Find the length of the string of each phone.

EXERCISE 10.5

Question 1. In Fig. 10.36, A,B and C are three points on a circle with centre O such that ∠ BOC = 30° and ∠ AOB = 60°. If D is a point on the circle other than the arc ABC, find ∠ADC

Question 2. A chord of a circle is equal to the radius of the circle. Find the angle subtended by the chord at a point on the minor arc and also at a point on the major arc.

Question 3. In Fig. 10.37, ∠ PQR = 100°, where P, Q and R are points on a circle with centre O. Find ∠ OPR.

Question 4. In Fig. 10.38, ∠ ABC = 69°, ∠ ACB = 31°, find ∠ BDC.

Question 5. In Fig. 10.39, A, B, C and D are four points on a circle. AC and BD intersect at a point E such that ∠ BEC = 130° and ∠ ECD = 20°. Find ∠ BAC.

Question 6. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at a point E. If ∠ DBC = 70°, ∠ BAC is 30°, find ∠ BCD. Further, if AB = BC, find ∠ ECD.

Question 7. If diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral are diameters of the circle through the vertices of the quadrilateral, prove that it is a rectangle.

Question 8. If the non-parallel sides of a trapezium are equal, prove that it is cyclic.

Question 9. Two circles intersect at two points B and C. Through B, two line segments ABD and PBQ are drawn to intersect the circles at A, D and P, Q respectively (see Fig. 10.40). Prove that ∠ ACP = ∠ QCD.

Question 10. If circles are drawn taking two sides of a triangle as diameters, prove that the point of intersection of these circles lie on the third side.

Question 11. ABC and ADC are two right triangles with common hypotenuse AC. Prove that ∠ CAD = ∠ CBD.

Question 12. Prove that a cyclic parallelogram is a rectangle.

EXERCISE 10.6

Question 1. Prove that the line of centres of two intersecting circles subtends equal angles at the two points of intersection.

Question 2. Two chords AB and CD of lengths 5 cm and 11 cm respectively of a circle are parallel to each other and are on opposite sides of its centre. If the distance between AB and CD is 6 cm, find the radius of the circle.

Question 3. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle are 6 cm and 8 cm. If the smaller chord is at distance 4 cm from the centre, what is the distance of the other chord from the centre?

Question 4. Let the vertex of an angle ABC be located outside a circle and let the sides of the angle intersect equal chords AD and CE with the circle. Prove that ∠ABC is equal to half the difference of the angles subtended by the chords AC and DE at the centre.

Question 5. Prove that the circle drawn with any side of a rhombus as diameter, passes through the point of intersection of its diagonals.

Question 6. ABCD is a parallelogram. The circle through A, B and C intersect CD (produced if necessary) at E. Prove that AE = AD.

Question 7. AC and BD are chords of a circle which bisect each other. Prove that :

(i) AC and BD are diameters
(ii) ABCD is a rectangle.

Question 8. Bisectors of angles A, B and C of a triangle ABC intersect its circumcircle at D, E and F respectively. Prove that the angles of the triangle DEF are 90° – 1 2 A, 90° – 1 2 B and 90° – 1 2 C.

(Mathematics) Chapter 11 Constructions

EXERCISE 11.1

Question 1. Construct an angle of 900 at the initial point of a given ray and justify the construction.

Question 2. Construct an angle of 450 at the initial point of a given ray and justify the construction.

Question 3. Construct the angles of the following measurements:
(i) 30°
(ii) 22 1 2 °
(iii) 15°

Question 4. Construct the following angles and verify by measuring them by a protractor:
(i) 75°
(ii) 105°
(iii) 135°

Question 5. Construct an equilateral triangle, given its side and justify the construction. 

EXERCISE 11.2

Question 1. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 7cm, ∠B = 75° and AB + AC = 13 cm.

Question 2. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 8cm, ∠B = 45° and AB – AC = 3.5 cm.

Question 3. Construct a triangle PQR in which QR = 6cm, ∠Q = 60° and PR – PQ = 2cm.

Question 4. Construct a triangle XYZ in which ∠Y = 30°, ∠Z = 90° and XY + YZ + ZX = 11 cm.

Question 5. Construct a right triangle whose base is 12cm and sum of its hypotenuse and other side is 18 cm.

(Mathematics) Chapter 12 Heron’s Formula

EXERCISE 12.1

Question 1. A traffic signal board, indicating ‘SCHOOL AHEAD’, is an equilateral triangle with side ‘a’. Find the area of the signal board, using Heron’s formula. If its perimeter is 180 cm, what will be the area of the signal board?

Question 2. The triangular side walls of a flyover have been used for advertisements. The sides of the walls are 122 m, 22 m and 120 m (see Fig. 12.9). The advertisements yield an earning of Rs 5000 per m2 per year. A company hired one of its walls for 3 months. How much rent did it pay? 

Question 3. There is a slide in a park. One of its side walls has been painted in some colour with a message “KEEP THE PARK GREEN AND CLEAN” (see Fig. 12.10 ). If the sides of the wall are 15 m, 11 m and 6 m, find the area painted in colour. Fig. 12.10

Question 4. Find the area of a triangle two sides of which are 18cm and 10cm and the perimeter is 42cm.

Question 5. Sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 12 : 17 : 25 and its perimeter is 540cm. Find its area. 6. An isosceles triangle has perimeter 30 cm and each of the equal sides is 12 cm. Find the area of the triangle.

EXERCISE 12.2

Question 1. A park, in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD, has ∠ C = 90º, AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m, CD = 5 m and AD = 8 m. How much area does it occupy?

Question 2. Find the area of a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm, CD = 4 cm, DA = 5 cm and AC = 5 cm.

Question 3. Radha made a picture of an aeroplane with coloured paper as shown in Fig 12.15. Find the total area of the paper used.

Question 4. A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the same area. If the sides of the triangle are 26 cm, 28 cm and 30 cm, and the parallelogram stands on the base 28 cm, find the height of the parallelogram. Fig. 12.14

Question 5. A rhombus shaped field has green grass for 18 cows to graze. If each side of the rhombus is 30 m and its longer diagonal is 48 m, how much area of grass field will each cow be getting?

Question 6. An umbrella is made by stitching 10 triangular pieces of cloth of two different colours (see Fig. 12.16), each piece measuring 20 cm, 50 cm and 50 cm. How much cloth of each colour is required for the umbrella? 7. A kite in the shape of a square with a diagonal 32 cm and an isosceles triangle of base 8 cm and sides 6 cm each is to be made of three different shades as shown in Fig. 12.1

Question 7. How much paper of each shade has been used in it?

Question 8. A floral design on a floor is made up of 16 tiles which are triangular, the sides of the triangle being 9 cm, 28 cm and 35 cm (see Fig. 12.18). Find the cost of polishing the tiles at the rate of 50p per cm2.

Question 9. A field is in the shape of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 25 m and 10 m. The non-parallel sides are 14 m and 13 m. Find the area of the field. 

(Mathematics) Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes

EXERCISE 13.1

Question 1. A plastic box 1.5 m long, 1.25 m wide and 65 cm deep is to be made. It is to be open at the top. Ignoring the thickness of the plastic sheet, determine:

(i) The area of the sheet required for making the box.
(ii) The cost of sheet for it, if a sheet measuring 1m2 costs Rs 20.

Question 2. The length, breadth and height of a room are 5 m, 4 m and 3 m respectively. Find the cost of white washing the walls of the room and the ceiling at the rate of Rs 7.50 per m2.

Question 3. The floor of a rectangular hall has a perimeter 250 m. If the cost of painting the four walls at the rate of Rs 10 per m2 is Rs 15000, find the height of the hall. [Hint : Area of the four walls = Lateral surface area.]

Question 4. The paint in a certain container is sufficient to paint an area equal to 9.375 m2. How many bricks of dimensions 22.5 cm × 10 cm × 7.5 cm can be painted out of this container?

Question 5. A cubical box has each edge 10 cm and another cuboidal box is 12.5 cm long, 10 cm wide and 8 cm high.

(i) Which box has the greater lateral surface area and by how much?
(ii) Which box has the smaller total surface area and by how much?

Question 6. A small indoor greenhouse (herbarium) is made entirely of glass panes (including base) held together with tape. It is 30 cm long, 25 cm wide and 25 cm high.

(i) What is the area of the glass?
(ii) How much of tape is needed for all the 12 edges?

Question 7. Shanti Sweets Stall was placing an order for making cardboard boxes for packing their sweets. Two sizes of boxes were required. The bigger of dimensions 25 cm × 20 cm × 5 cm and the smaller of dimensions 15 cm × 12 cm × 5 cm. For all the overlaps, 5% of the total surface area is required extra. If the cost of the cardboard is Rs 4 for 1000 cm2, find the cost of cardboard required for supplying 250 boxes of each kind.

Question 8. Parveen wanted to make a temporary shelter for her car, by making a box-like structure with tarpaulin that covers all the four sides and the top of the car (with the front face as a flap which can be rolled up). Assuming that the stitching margins are very small, and therefore negligible, how much tarpaulin would be required to make the shelter of height 2.5 m, with base dimensions 4 m × 3 m?

EXERCISE 13.2

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 88 cm2. Find the diameter of the base of the cylinder.

Question 2. It is required to make a closed cylindrical tank of height 1 m and base diameter 140 cm from a metal sheet. How many square metres of the sheet are required for the same?

Question 3. A metal pipe is 77 cm long. The inner diameter of a cross section is 4 cm, the outer diameter being 4.4 cm (see Fig. 13.11). Find its

(i) inner curved surface area,
(ii) outer curved surface area,
(iii) total surface area.

Question 4. The diameter of a roller is 84 cm and its length is 120 cm. It takes 500 complete revolutions to move once over to level a playground. Find the area of the playground in m2.

Question 5. A cylindrical pillar is 50 cm in diameter and 3.5 m in height. Find the cost of painting the curved surface of the pillar at the rate of Rs 12.50 per m2.

Question 6. Curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 m2. If the radius of the base of the cylinder is 0.7 m, find its height.

Question 7. The inner diameter of a circular well is 3.5 m. It is 10 m deep. Find

(i) its inner curved surface area,
(ii) the cost of plastering this curved surface at the rate of Rs 40 per m2.

Question 8. In a hot water heating system, there is a cylindrical pipe of length 28 m and diameter 5 cm. Find the total radiating surface in the system.

Question 9. Find

(i) the lateral or curved surface area of a closed cylindrical petrol storage tank that is 4.2 m in diameter and 4.5 m high.
(ii) how much steel was actually used, if 1 12 of the steel actually used was wasted in making the tank.

Question 10. In Fig. 13.12, you see the frame of a lampshade. It is to be covered with a decorative cloth. The frame has a base diameter of 20 cm and height of 30 cm. A margin of 2.5 cm is to be given for folding it over the top and bottom of the frame. Find how much cloth is required for covering the lampshade.

Question 11. The students of a Vidyalaya were asked to participate in a competition for making and decorating penholders in the shape of a cylinder with a base, using cardboard. Each penholder was to be of radius 3 cm and height 10.5 cm. The Vidyalaya was to supply the competitors with cardboard. If there were 35 competitors, how much cardboard was required to be bought for the competition?

EXERCISE 13.3

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. Diameter of the base of a cone is 10.5 cm and its slant height is 10 cm. Find its curved surface area.

Question 2. Find the total surface area of a cone, if its slant height is 21 m and diameter of its base is 24 m. 3. Curved surface area of a cone is 308 cm2 and its slant height is 14 cm. Find

(i) radius of the base and
(ii) total surface area of the cone.

Question 4. A conical tent is 10 m high and the radius of its base is 24 m. Find

(i) slant height of the tent.
(ii) cost of the canvas required to make the tent, if the cost of 1 m2 canvas is Rs 70.

Question 5. What length of tarpaulin 3 m wide will be required to make conical tent of height 8 m and base radius 6 m? Assume that the extra length of material that will be required for stitching margins and wastage in cutting is approximately 20 cm (Use π = 3.14).

Question 6. The slant height and base diameter of a conical tomb are 25 m and 14 m respectively. Find the cost of white-washing its curved surface at the rate of Rs 210 per 100 m2.

Question 7. A joker’s cap is in the form of a right circular cone of base radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Find the area of the sheet required to make 10 such caps.

Question 8. A bus stop is barricaded from the remaining part of the road, by using 50 hollow cones made of recycled cardboard. Each cone has a base diameter of 40 cm and height 1 m. If the outer side of each of the cones is to be painted and the cost of painting is Rs 12 per m2, what will be the cost of painting all these cones? (Use π = 3.14 and take 1.04 = 1.02)

EXERCISE 13.4

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. Find the surface area of a sphere of radius:

(i) 10.5 cm
(ii) 5.6 cm
(iii) 14 cm

Question 2. Find the surface area of a sphere of diameter:

(i) 14 cm
(ii) 21 cm
(iii) 3.5 m

Question 3. Find the total surface area of a hemisphere of radius 10 cm. (Use π = 3.14)

Question 4. The radius of a spherical balloon increases from 7 cm to 14 cm as air is being pumped into it. Find the ratio of surface areas of the balloon in the two cases.

Question 5. A hemispherical bowl made of brass has inner diameter 10. 5 cm. Find the cost of tin-plating it on the inside at the rate of Rs 16 per 100 cm2.

Question 6. Find the radius of a sphere whose surface area is 154 cm2.

Question 7. The diameter of the moon is approximately one fourth of the diameter of the earth. Find the ratio of their surface areas.

Question 8. A hemispherical bowl is made of steel, 0.25 cm thick. The inner radius of the bowl is 5 cm. Find the outer curved surface area of the bowl.

Question 9. A right circular cylinder just encloses a sphere of radius r (see Fig. 13.22).Find

(i) surface area of the sphere,
(ii) curved surface area of the cylinder,
(iii) ratio of the areas obtained in
(i) and (ii). cm × 2.5 cm × 1.5 cm. What will be the volume of a packet containing 12 such boxes?

EXERCISE 13.5

Question 1. A matchbox measures 4 cm × 2.5 cm × 1.5 cm. What will be the volume of a packet containing 12 such boxes?

Question 2. A cuboidal water tank is 6 m long, 5 m wide and 4.5 m deep. How many litres of water can it hold? (1 m3 = 1000 l)

Question 3. A cuboidal vessel is 10 m long and 8 m wide. How high must it be made to hold 380 cubic metres of a liquid?

Question 4. Find the cost of digging a cuboidal pit 8 m long, 6 m broad and 3 m deep at the rate of Rs 30 per m3.

Question 5. The capacity of a cuboidal tank is 50000 litres of water. Find the breadth of the tank, if its length and depth are respectively 2.5 m and 10 m.

Question 6. A village, having a population of 4000, requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m × 15 m × 6 m. For how many days will the water of this tank last?

Question 7. A godown measures 40 m × 25 m × 10 m. Find the maximum number of wooden crates each measuring 1.5 m × 1.25 m × 0.5 m that can be stored in the godown.

Question 8. A solid cube of side 12 cm is cut into eight cubes of equal volume. What will be the side of the new cube? Also, find the ratio between their surface areas. 9. A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water will fall into the sea in a minute?

EXERCISE 13.6

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. The circumference of the base of a cylindrical vessel is 132 cm and its height is 25 cm. How many litres of water can it hold? (1000 cm3 = 1l)

Question 2. The inner diameter of a cylindrical wooden pipe is 24 cm and its outer diameter is 28 cm. The length of the pipe is 35 cm. Find the mass of the pipe, if 1 cm3 of wood has a mass of 0.6 g.

Question 3. A soft drink is available in two packs - (i) a tin can with a rectangular base of length5 cm and width 4 cm, having a height of 15 cm and (ii) a plastic cylinder with circular base of diameter 7 cm and height 10 cm. Which container has greater capacity and by how much?

Question 4. If the lateral surface of a cylinder is 94.2 cm2 and its height is 5 cm, then find (i) radius of its base (ii) its volume. (Use π = 3.14)

Question 5. It costs Rs 2200 to paint the inner curved surface of a cylindrical vessel 10 m deep. If the cost of painting is at the rate of Rs 20 per m2, find

(i) inner curved surface area of the vessel,
(ii) radius of the base,
(iii) capacity of the vessel.

Question 6. The capacity of a closed cylindrical vessel of height 1 m is 15.4 litres. How many square metres of metal sheet would be needed to make it?

Question 7. A lead pencil consists of a cylinder of wood with a solid cylinder of graphite filled in the interior. The diameter of the pencil is 7 mm and the diameter of the graphite is 1 mm. If the length of the pencil is 14 cm, find the volume of the wood and that of the graphite.

Question 8. A patient in a hospital is given soup daily in a cylindrical bowl of diameter 7 cm. If the bowl is filled with soup to a height of 4 cm, how much soup the hospital has to prepare daily to serve 250 patients

EXERCISE 13.7

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. Find the volume of the right circular cone with (i) radius 6 cm, height 7 cm (ii) radius 3.5 cm, height 12 cm

Question 2. Find the capacity in litres of a conical vessel with (i) radius 7 cm, slant height 25 cm (ii) height 12 cm, slant height 13 cm

Question 3. The height of a cone is 15 cm. If its volume is 1570 cm3, find the radius of the base. (Use π = 3.14)

Question 4. If the volume of a right circular cone of height 9 cm is 48 π cm3, find the diameter of its base.

Question 5. A conical pit of top diameter 3.5 m is 12 m deep. What is its capacity in kilolitres?

Question 6. The volume of a right circular cone is 9856 cm3. If the diameter of the base is 28 cm, find

(i) height of the cone
(ii) slant height of the cone
(iii) curved surface area of the cone

Question7. A right triangle ABC with sides 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm is revolved about the side 12 cm. Find the volume of the solid so obtained.

Question 8. If the triangle ABC in the Question 7 above is revolved about the side 5 cm, then find the volume of the solid so obtained. Find also the ratio of the volumes of the two solids obtained in Questions 7 and 8.

Question 9. A heap of wheat is in the form of a cone whose diameter is 10.5 m and height is 3 m. Find its volume. The heap is to be covered by canvas to protect it from rain. Find the area of the canvas required.

EXERCISE 13.8

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. Find the volume of a sphere whose radius is (i) 7 cm (ii) 0.63 m

Question 2. Find the amount of water displaced by a solid spherical ball of diameter (i) 28 cm (ii) 0.21 m

Question 3. The diameter of a metallic ball is 4.2 cm. What is the mass of the ball, if the density of the metal is 8.9 g per cm3?

Question 4. The diameter of the moon is approximately one-fourth of the diameter of the earth. What fraction of the volume of the earth is the volume of the moon?

Question 5. How many litres of milk can a hemispherical bowl of diameter 10.5 cm hold?

Question 6. A hemispherical tank is made up of an iron sheet 1 cm thick. If the inner radius is 1 m, then find the volume of the iron used to make the tank.

Question 7. Find the volume of a sphere whose surface area is 154 cm2.

Question 8. A dome of a building is in the form of a hemisphere. From inside, it was white-washed at the cost of Rs 498.96. If the cost of white-washing is Rs 2.00 per square metre, find the
(i) inside surface area of the dome,
(ii) volume of the air inside the dome.

Question 9. Twenty seven solid iron spheres, each of radius r and surface area S are melted to form a sphere with surface area S. Find the (i) radius r of the new sphere, (ii) ratio of S and S′.

Question 10. A capsule of medicine is in the shape of a sphere of diameter 3.5 mm. How much medicine (in mm3) is needed to fill this capsule?

EXERCISE 13.9

Question 1. A wooden bookshelf has external dimensions as follows: Height = 110 cm, Depth = 25 cm, Breadth = 85 cm (see Fig. 13.31). The thickness of the plank is 5 cm everywhere. The external faces are to be polished and the inner faces are to be painted. If the rate of polishing is 20 paise per cm2 and the rate of painting is 10 paise per cm2, find the total expenses required for polishing and painting the surface of the bookshelf.

Question 2. The front compound wall of a house is decorated by wooden spheres of diameter 21 cm, placed on small supports as shown in Fig 13.32. Eight such spheres are used for this purpose, and are to be painted silver. Each support is a cylinder of radius 1.5 cm and height 7 cm and is to be painted black. Find the cost of paint required if silver paint costs 25 paise per cm2 and black paint costs 5 paise per cm2.

Question 3. The diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25%. By what per cent does its curved surface area decrease?

(Mathematics) Chapter 14 Statistics

EXERCISE 14.1

Question 1. Give five examples of data that you can collect from your day-to-day life. 2. Classify the data in Q.1 above as primary or secondary data.

EXERCISE 14.2

Question 1. The blood groups of 30 students of Class VIII are recorded as follows:

A, B, O, O, AB, O, A, O, B, A, O, B, A, O, O,
A, AB, O, A, A, O, O, AB, B, A, O, B, A, B, O.
Represent this data in the form of a frequency distribution table. Which is the most common, and which is the rarest, blood group among these students?

Question 2. The distance (in km) of 40 engineers from their residence to their place of work were found as follows:

5 3 10 20 25 11 13 7 12 31
19 10 12 17 18 11 32 17 16 2
7 9 7 8 3 5 12 15 18 3
12 14 2 9 6 15 15 7 6 12

Construct a grouped frequency distribution table with class size 5 for the data given above taking the first interval as 05 (5 not included). What main features do you observe from this tabular representation?

Question 3. The relative humidity (in %) of a certain city for a month of 30 days was as follows:

98.1 98.6 99.2 90.3 86.5 95.3 92.9 96.3 94.2 95.1

89.2 92.3 97.1 93.5 92.7 95.1 97.2 93.3 95.2 97.3

96.2 92.1 84.9 90.2 95.7 98.3 97.3 96.1 92.1 89

(i) Construct a grouped frequency distribution table with classes 84 - 86, 86 - 88, etc.
(ii) Which month or season do you think this data is about?
(iii) What is the range of this data?

Question 4. The heights of 50 students, measured to the nearest centimetres, have been found to be as follows:

161 150 154 165 168 161 154 162 150 151
162 164 171 165 158 154 156 172 160 170
153 159 161 170 162 165 166 168 165 164
154 152 153 156 158 162 160 161 173 166
161 159 162 167 168 159 158 153 154 159

(i) Represent the data given above by a grouped frequency distribution table, taking the class intervals as 160 - 165, 165 - 170, etc.
(ii) What can you conclude about their heights from the table?

Question 5. A study was conducted to find out the concentration of sulphur dioxide in the air in parts per million (ppm) of a certain city. The data obtained for 30 days is as follows:

0.03 0.08 0.08 0.09 0.04 0.17
0.16 0.05 0.02 0.06 0.18 0.20
0.11 0.08 0.12 0.13 0.22 0.07
0.08 0.01 0.10 0.06 0.09 0.18
0.11 0.07 0.05 0.07 0.01 0.04

(i) Make a grouped frequency distribution table for this data with class intervals as 0.00 - 0.04, 0.04 - 0.08, and so on.
(ii) For how many days, was the concentration of sulphur dioxide more than 0.11 parts per million?

Question 6. Three coins were tossed 30 times simultaneously. Each time the number of heads occurring was noted down as follows:

0 1 2 2 1 2 3 1 3 0
1 3 1 1 2 2 0 1 2 1
3 0 0 1 1 2 3 2 2 0

Prepare a frequency distribution table for the data given above.

Question 7. The value of π upto 50 decimal places is given below:

3.14159265358979323846264338327950288419716939937510

(i) Make a frequency distribution of the digits from 0 to 9 after the decimal point.
(ii) What are the most and the least frequently occurring digits?

Question 8. Thirty children were asked about the number of hours they watched TV programmes in the previous week. The results were found as follows:

1 6 2 3 5 12 5 8 4 8
10 3 4 12 2 8 15 1 17 6
3 2 8 5 9 6 8 7 14 12

(i) Make a grouped frequency distribution table for this data, taking class width 5 and one of the class intervals as 5 - 10.
(ii) How many children watched television for 15 or more hours a week?

Question 9. A company manufactures car batteries of a particular type. The lives (in years) of 40 such batteries were recorded as follows:

2.6 3.0 3.7 3.2 2.2 4.1 3.5 4.5
3.5 2.3 3.2 3.4 3.8 3.2 4.6 3.7
2.5 4.4 3.4 3.3 2.9 3.0 4.3 2.8
3.5 3.2 3.9 3.2 3.2 3.1 3.7 3.4
4.6 3.8 3.2 2.6 3.5 4.2 2.9 3.6

Construct a grouped frequency distribution table for this data, using class intervals of size 0.5 starting from the interval 2 - 2.5.

EXERCISE 14.3

Question 1. A survey conducted by an organisation for the cause of illness and death among the women between the ages 15 - 44 (in years) worldwide, found the following figures (in %):

(i) Represent the information given above graphically.
(ii) Which condition is the major cause of women’s ill health and death worldwide?
(iii) Try to find out, with the help of your teacher, any two factors which play a major role in the cause in (ii) above being the major cause.

Question 2. The following data on the number of girls (to the nearest ten) per thousand boys in different sections of Indian society is given below

(i) Represent the information above by a bar graph.
(ii) In the classroom discuss what conclusions can be arrived at from the graph.

Question 3. Given below are the seats won by different political parties in the polling outcome of a state assembly elections:

(i) Draw a bar graph to represent the polling results.
(ii) Which political party won the maximum number of seats?

Question 4. The length of 40 leaves of a plant are measured correct to one millimetre, and the obtained data is represented in the following table:

(i) Draw a histogram to represent the given data.
(ii) Is there any other suitable graphical representation for the same data?
(iii) Is it correct to conclude that the maximum number of leaves are 153 mm long? Why?

Question 5. The following table gives the life times of 400 neon lamps:

(i) Represent the given information with the help of a histogram.
(ii) How many lamps have a life time of more than 700 hours?

Question 6. The following table gives the distribution of students of two sections according to the marks obtained by them: Represent the marks of the students of both the sections on the same graph by two frequency polygons. From the two polygons compare the performance of the two sections.

Question 7. The runs scored by two teams A and B on the first 60 balls in a cricket match are given below: Represent the data of both the teams on the same graph by frequency polygons. [Hint : First make the class intervals continuous.]
Draw a histogram to represent the data above.

Question 8. 100 surnames were randomly picked up from a local telephone directory and a frequency distribution of the number of letters in the English alphabet in the surnames was found as follows:

(i) Draw a histogram to depict the given information.
(ii) Write the class interval in which the maximum number of surnames lie.

EXERCISE 14.4

Question 1. The following number of goals were scored by a team in a series of 10 matches:

2, 3, 4, 5, 0, 1, 3, 3, 4, 3 Find the mean, median and mode of these scores.

Question 2. In a mathematics test given to 15 students, the following marks (out of 100) are recorded:

41, 39, 48, 52, 46, 62, 54, 40, 96, 52, 98, 40, 42, 52, 60 Find the mean, median and mode of this data.

Question 3. The following observations have been arranged in ascending order. If the median of the data is 63, find the value of x.

29, 32, 48, 50, x, x + 2, 72, 78, 84, 95

Question 4. Find the mode of 14, 25, 14, 28, 18, 17, 18, 14, 23, 22, 14, 18.

Question 5. Find the mean salary of 60 workers of a factory from the following table:

Question 6. Give one example of a situation in which (i) the mean is an appropriate measure of central tendency. (ii) the mean is not an appropriate measure of central tendency but the median is an appropriate measure of central tendency.

(Mathematics) Chapter 15 Probability

EXERCISE 15.1

Question 1. In a cricket match, a batswoman hits a boundary 6 times out of 30 balls she plays. Find the probability that she did not hit a boundary.

Question 2. 1500 families with 2 children were selected randomly, and the following data were recorded:Compute the probability of a family, chosen at random, having
(i) 2 girls
(ii) 1 girl
(iii) No girl Also check whether the sum of these probabilities is 1.

Question 3. Refer to Example 5, Section 14.4, Chapter 14. Find the probability that a student of the class was born in August.

Question 4. Three coins are tossed simultaneously 200 times with the following frequencies of different outcomes: If the three coins are simultaneously tossed again, compute the probability of 2 heads coming up.

Question 5. An organisation selected 2400 families at random and surveyed them to determine a relationship between income level and the number of vehicles in a family. The information gathered is listed in the table below: Suppose a family is chosen. Find the probability that the family chosen is

(i) earning Rs 10000 – 13000 per month and owning exactly 2 vehicles.
(ii) earning Rs 16000 or more per month and owning exactly 1 vehicle.
(iii) earning less than Rs 7000 per month and does not own any vehicle.
(iv) earning Rs 13000 – 16000 per month and owning more than 2 vehicles.
(v) owning not more than 1 vehicle.

Question 6. Refer to Table 14.7, Chapter 14.

(i) Find the probability that a student obtained less than 20% in the mathematics test.
(ii) Find the probability that a student obtained marks 60 or above.

Question 7. To know the opinion of the students about the subject statistics, a survey of 200 students was conducted. The data is recorded in the following table Find the probability that a student chosen at random
(i) likes statistics, (ii) does not like it.

Question 8. Refer to Q.2, Exercise 14.2. What is the empirical probability that an engineer lives:

(i) less than 7 km from her place of work?
(ii) more than or equal to 7 km from her place of work?
(iii) within 1 2 km from her place of work?

Question 9. Activity : Note the frequency of two-wheelers, three-wheelers and four-wheelers going past during a time interval, in front of your school gate. Find the probability that any one vehicle out of the total vehicles you have observed is a two-wheeler.

Question 10. Activity : Ask all the students in your class to write a 3-digit number. Choose any student from the room at random. What is the probability that the number written by her/him is divisible by 3? Remember that a number is divisible by 3, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.

Question 11. Eleven bags of wheat flour, each marked 5 kg, actually contained the following weights of flour (in kg):
4.97 5.05 5.08 5.03 5.00 5.06 5.08 4.98 5.04 5.07 5.00
Find the probability that any of these bags chosen at random contains more than 5 kg of flour.

Question 12. In Q.5, Exercise 14.2, you were asked to prepare a frequency distribution table, regarding the concentration of sulphur dioxide in the air in parts per million of a certain city for 30 days. Using this table, find the probability of the concentration of sulphur dioxide in the interval 0.12 - 0.16 on any of these days.

Question 13. In Q.1, Exercise 14.2, you were asked to prepare a frequency distribution table regarding the blood groups of 30 students of a class. Use this table to determine the probability that a student of this class, selected at random, has blood group AB.

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(Map) Printed India Map Poster

Book Details:

Reading level: 6 - 8 years

Poster: 1 pages

Publisher: Dreamland Publications; latest edition 2014 edition (2014)

Language: English

ISBN-10: 8184511523

ISBN-13: 978-8184511529

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NCERT  English Question Paper (Class - 10)

Chapter 1 A Letter to God

Question 1: What did Lencho hope for?

Question 2: Why did Lencho say the raindrops were like ‘new coins’?

Question 3: How did the rain change? What happened to Lencho’s fields?

Question 4: What were Lencho’s feelings when the hail stopped?

Question 5: Who or what did Lencho have faith in? What did he do?

Question 6: Who read the letter?

Question 7: What did the postmaster do then?

Question 8: Who does Lencho have complete faith in? Which sentences in the story tell you this?

Question 9: Why does the postmaster send money to Lencho? Why does he sign the letter ‘God’?

Question 10: Did Lencho try to find out who had sent the money to him? Why/Why not?

Question 11: Who does Lencho think has taken the rest of the money? What is the irony in the situation? [Remember that the irony of a situation is an unexpected aspect of it. An ironic situation is strange or amusing because it is the opposite of what is expected.]

Question 12: Are there people like Lencho in the real world? What kind of a person would you say he is? You may select appropriate words from the box to answer the question.

Question 13: There are two kinds of conflict in the story: between humans and nature, and between humans themselves. How are these conflicts illustrated?

Question 14: Was Lencho surprised to find a letter for him with money in it?

Question 15: What made him angry?

Question 16: There are different names in different parts of the world for storms,depending on their nature. Can you match the names in the box with theirdescriptions below, and fill in the blanks? You may use a dictionary to help

Question 17: Match the sentences in Column A with the meanings of ‘hope’ in Column B.

Question 18: Relative Clauses Join the sentences given below using who, whom, whose, which as suggested.

Question 19: Find sentences in the story with negative words, which express the following ideas emphatically.

Question 20: In pairs, find metaphors from the story to complete the table below. Try to say what qualities are being compared. One has been done for you.

Chapter 2 Long Walk to Freedom

Oral Comprehension Check

Question 1: Where did the ceremonies take place? Can you name any public buildings in India that are made of sandstone?

Question 2: Can you say how 10 May is an ‘autumn day’ in South Africa?

Question 3: At the beginning of his speech, Madela mentions “an extraordinary human disaster”. What does he mean by this? What is the “glorious … human achievement” he speaks of at the end?

Question 4: What does Mandela thank the international leaders for?

Question 5: What ideals does he set out for the future of South Africa?

Question 6: What do the military generals do? How has their attitude changed, and why?

Question 7: Why were two national anthems sung?

Question 8: How does Mandela describe the systems of government in his country (i) in the first decade, and (ii) in the final decade, of the twentieth century?

Question 9: What does courage mean to Mandela?

Question 10: Which does he think is natural, to love or to hate?

Thinking About the Text

Question 1: Why did such a large number of international leaders attend the inauguration? Whatdid it signify the triumph of?

Question 2: What does Mandela mean when he says he is “simply the sum of all those Africanpatriots” who had gone before him?

Question 3: Would you agree that the “depths of oppression” create “heights of character? How does Mandela illustrate this? Can you add your own examples to this argument?

Question 4: How did Mandela’s understanding of freedom change with age and experience?

Question 5: How did Mandela’s ‘hunger for freedom’ change his life?

Thinking About Language

Question 1: There are nouns in the text (formation, government) which are formed from the corresponding verbs (form, govern) by suffixing − (at)ion or ment. There may be change in the spelling of some verb − noun pairs: such as rebel, rebellion; constitute, constitution.

Question 2: Here are some more examples of ‘the’ used with proper names. Try to say what these sentences mean. (You may consult a dictionary if you wish. Look at the entry for ‘the’)

Question 3: Match, the italicised phrases in Column A with the phrase nearest meaning in Column B. (Hint: First look for the sentence in the text which the phrase in column A occurs.)
Oral Comprehension Check

Question 4: What “twin obligations” does Mandela mention?

Question 5: What did being free mean to Mandela as a boy, and as a student? How does he contrast these “transitory freedoms” with “the basic and honourable freedoms”?

Question 6: Does Mandela think the oppressor is free? Why/Why not?

Chapter 3 Two Stories About Flying

Question 1: Why was the young seagull afraid to fly? Do you think all young birds are afraid to make their first flight, or are some birds more timid than others? Do you think a human baby also finds it a challenge to take its first steps?

Question 2: “The sight of the food maddened him.” What does this suggest? What compelled the young seagull to finally fly?

Question 3:  “They were beckoning to him, calling shrilly. “Why did the seagull’s father and mother threaten him and cajole him to fly?

Question 4: Have you ever had a similar experience, where your parents encouraged you to do something that you were too scared to try? Discuss this in pairs or groups.

Question 5: In the case of a bird flying, it seems a natural act, and a foregone conclusion that it should succeed. In the examples you have given in answer to the previous question, was your success guaranteed, or was it important for you to try, regardless of a possibility of failure?

Question 6: “I’ll take the risk.” What is the risk? Why does the narrator take it?

Question 7: Describe the narrator’s experience as he flew the aeroplane into the storm.

Question 8: Why does the narrator say, “I landed and was not sorry to walk away from the old Dakota…”?

Question 9: What made the woman in the control centre look at the narrator strangely?

Question 10: Who do you think helped the narrator to reach safely? Discuss this among yourselves and give reasons for your answer.

Question 11: Try to guess the meanings of the word ‘black’ in the sentences given below. Check the meanings in the dictionary and find out whether you have guessed right.

1. Go and have a bath; your hands and face are absolutely black __________.
2. The taxi-driver gave Ratan a black look as he crossed the road when the traffic light was green. __________
3. The bombardment of Hiroshima is one of the blackest crimes against humanity. __________
4. Very few people enjoy Harold Pinter’s black comedy. __________
5. Sometimes shopkeepers store essential goods to create false scarcity and then sell these in black. __________
6. Villagers had beaten the criminal black and blue. __________

Question 12: Match the phrases given under Column A with their meanings given under Column B:

Question 13: We know that the word ‘fly’ (of birds/insects) means to move through air using wings. Tick the words which have the same or nearly the same meaning.

Chapter 4 From the Diary of Anne Frank

Question 1: Do you keep a diary? Given below under ‘A’ are some terms we use to describe a written record of personal experience. Can you match them with their descriptions under ‘B’? (You may look up the terms in a dictionary if you wish.)

Question 2: Here are some entries from personal records. Use the definitions above to decide which of the entries might be from a diary, a journal, a log or a memoir. (i) I woke up very late today and promptly got a scolding from Mum! I can’t help it − how can I miss the FIFA World Cup matches?

Question 3: Why does Anne provide a brief sketch of her life?

Question 4: What tells you that Anne loved her grandmother?

Question 5: Was Anne right when she said that the world would not be interested in the musings of a thirteen-year-old girl?

Question 6: There are some examples of diary or journal entries in the ‘Before You Read’ section. Compare these with what Anne writes in her diary. What language was the diary originally written in? In what way is Anne’s dairy different?

Question 7: Why does Anne need to give a brief sketch about her family? Does she treat ‘Kitty’ as an insider or an outsider?

Question 8: How does Anne feel about her father, her grandmother, Mrs Kuperus and Mr Keesing? What do these tell you about her?

Question 9: What does Anne write in her first essay?

Question 10: Anne says teachers are most unpredictable. Is Mr Keesing unpredictable? How?

Question 11: What do these statements tell you about Anne Frank as a person?

(i) We don’t seem to be able to get any closer, and that’s the problem. Maybe it’s my fault that we don’t confide in each other.
(ii) I don’t want to jot down the facts in this diary the way most people would, but I want the diary to be my friend.
(iii) Margot went to Holland in December, and I followed in February, when I was plunked down on the table as a birthday present for Margot.
(iv) If you ask me, there are so many dummies that about a quarter of the class should be kept back, but teachers are the most unpredictable creatures on earth.
(v) Anyone could ramble on and leave big spaces between the words, but the trick was to come up with convincing arguments to prove the necessity of taking.

Question 12: Why was Mr Keesing annoyed with Anne? What did he ask her to do?

Question 13: How did Anne justify her being a chatterbox in her essay?

Question 14: Do you think Mr Keesing was a strict teacher?

Question 15: What made Mr Keesing allow Anne to talk in class?

Question 16: Match the compound words under ‘A’ with their meanings under ‘B’. Use each in sentence.

Question 17: Phrasal Verbs Find the sentences in the lesson that have the phrasal verbs given below. Match them with their meanings.

Question 18:  Idioms
1. Here are a few sentences from the text which have idiomatic expressions. Can you say what each means? (You might want to consult a dictionary first.)

Question 19: You have read the expression ‘not to lose heart’ in this text. Now find out the meanings of the following expressions using the word ‘heart’. Use each of them in a sentence of your own.

Question 20: Contracted Forms 1. Make a list of the contracted forms in the text. Rewrite them as full forms of two words.

Chapter Chapter 5 The Hundred Dresses

Question 1: Where in the classroom does Wanda sit and why?

Question 2: Where does Wanda live? What kind of a place do you think it is?

Question 3: When and why do Peggy and Maddie notice Wanda’s absence?

Question 4:  What do you think “to have fun with her” means?

Question 5: In what way was Wanda different from the other children?

Question 6: Did Wanda have a hundred dresses? Why do you think she said she did?

Question 7: Why is Maddie embarrassed by the questions Peggy asks Wanda? Is she also like Wanda, or is she different?

Question 8: How is Wanda seen as different by the other girls? How do they treat her?

Question 9: How does Wanda feel about the dresses game? Why does she say that she has a hundred dresses?

Question 10: Why does Maddie stand by and not do anything? How is she different from Peggy? (Was Peggy’s friendship important to Maddie? Why? Which lines in the text tell you this?)

Question 11: What does Miss Mason think of Wanda’s drawings? What do the children think of them? How do you know?

Question 12: Why didn’t Maddie ask Peggie to stop teasing Wanda? What was she afraid of?

Question 13: Who did Maddie think would win the drawing contest? Why?

Question 14: Who won the drawing contest? What had the winner drawn?

Question 15: Combine the following to make sentences like those above.

1. This is the bus (what kind of bus?) It goes to Agra. (use which or that)
2. I would like to buy (a) shirt (which shirt?). (The) shirt is in the shop window. (use which or that)
3. You must break your fast at a particular time (when?). You see the moon in the sky. (use when)
4. Find a word (what kind of word?). It begins with the letter Z. (use which or that).
5. Now find a person (what kind of person). His or her name begins with the letter Z. (use whose)
6. Then go to a place (what place?). There are no people whose name begins with Z in that place. (use where)

Question 16:  1. Can you say whose point of view the italicised words express?

(i) But on Wednesday, Peggy and Maddie, who sat down front with other children who got good marks and who didn’t track in a whole lot of mud, did notice that Wanda wasn’t there.
(ii) Wands Petronski. Most of the children in Room Thirteen didn’t have names like that. They had names easy to say, like Thomas, Smith or Allen.

Question 17: Look at this sentence. The italicised adverb expresses an opinion or point of view. Obviously, the only dress Wanda had was the blue one she wore every day. (This was obvious to the speaker.)

Chapter 6 The Hundred Dresses(2)

Question 1: What did Mr Petronski’s letter say?

Question 2: Is Miss Mason angry with the class, or is she unhappy and upset?

Question 3: How does Maddie feel after listening to the note from Wanda’s father?

Question 4: What does Maddie want to do?

Question 5: What excuses does Peggy think up for her behaviour? Why?

Question 6: What are Maddie’s thoughts as they go to Boggins Heights?

Question 7: Why does Wanda’s house remind Maddie of Wanda’s blue dress?

Question 8: What does Maddie think hard about? What important decision does she come to?

Question 9: Why do you think Wanda’s family moved to a different city? Do you think life there was going to be different for their family?

Question 10: Maddie thought her silence was as bad as Peggy’s teasing. Was she right?

Question 11: Peggy says, “I never thought she had the sense to know we were making fun of her anyway. I thought she was too dumb. And gee, look how she can draw!” What led Peggy to believe that Wanda was dumb? Did she change her opinion later?

Question 12: What did the girls write to Wanda?

Question 13: Did they get a reply? Who was more anxious for a reply, Peggy or Maddie? How do

Question 14: How did the girls know that Wanda liked them even though they had teased her?

Question 15: What important decision did Maddie make? Why did she have to think hard to do so?

Question 16: Why do you think Wanda gave Maddie and Peggy the drawings of the dresses? Why are they surprised?

Question 17: Do you think Wanda really thought the girls were teasing her? Why or why not?

Question 18: Here are thirty adjectives describing human qualities. Discuss them with your partner and put them in the two word webs (given below) according to whether you think they show positive or negative qualities. You can consult a dictionary if you are not sure of the meanings of some of the words. You may also add to the list the positive or negative ‘pair’ of a given words.

Question 19: What adjectives can we use to describe Peggy, Wanda and Maddie? You can choose adjectives from the list above. You can also add some of your own.

Question 20: 1.Find the sentences in the story with the following phrasal verbs.

Question 21: Colours are used to describe feelings, moods and emotions. Match the following ‘colour expressions’ with a suggested paraphrase.

Chapter 7 Glimpses of India

Question 1: What are the elders in Goa nostalgic about?

Question 2: Is bread-making still popular in Goa? How do you know?

Question 3: What is the baker called?

Question 4: When would the baker come everyday? Why did the children run to meet him?

Question 5: Match the following. What is a must

Question 6: What did the bakers wear:
(i) in the Portuguese days?
(ii) when the author was young?

Question 7: Who invites the comment − “he is dressed like a pader”? Why?

Question 8: Where were the monthly accounts of the baker recorded?

Question 9: What does a ‘jackfruit-like appearance’ mean?

Question 10: Which of these statements are correct?

Question 11:  Is bread an important part of Goan life? How do you know this?

Question 12: Tick the right answer. What is the tone of the author when he says the following?

(i) The thud and the jingle of the traditional baker’s bamboo can still be heard in some places. (nostalgic, hopeful, sad)
(ii) Maybe the father is not alive but the son still carries on the family profession. (nostalgic, hopeful, sad)
(iii) I still recall the typical fragrance of those loaves. (nostalgic, hopeful, naughty)
(iv) The tiger never brushed his teeth. Hot tea could wash and clean up everything so nicely, after all. (naughty, angry, funny)
(v) Cakes and bolinhas are a must for Christmas as well as other festivals. (sad, hopeful, matter-of-fact)
(vi) The baker and his family never starved. They always looked happy and prosperous. (matter-of-fact, hopeful, sad)

Question 13: Where is Coorg?

Question 14: What is the story about the Kodavu people’s descent?

Question 15: What are some of the things you now know about
(i) the people of Coorg?
(ii) the main crop of Coorg?
(iii) the sports it offers to tourists?
(iv) the animals you are likely to see in Coorg?
(v) its distance from Bangalore, and how to get there?

Question 16:  Here are six sentences with some words in italics. Find phrases from the text that have the same meaning. (Look in the paragraphs indicated)

(i) During monsoons it rains so heavily that tourists do not visit Coorg. (para 2)
(ii) Some people say that Alexander’s army moved south along the coast and settled there. (para 3)
(iii) The Coorg people are always ready to tell stories of their sons’ and fathers’ valour. (para 4)
(iv) Even people who normally lead an easy and slow life get smitten by the highenergy adventure sports of Coorg. (para 6)
(v)The theory of the Arab origin is supported by the long coat with embroidered waist-belt they wear. (para 3)
(vi) Macaques, Malabar squirrels observe you carefully from the tree canopy. (para 7)

Question 17:  Here are some nouns from the text. culture monks surprise experience weather tradition Work with a partner and discuss which of the nouns can collocate with which of the adjectives given below. The first one has been done for you.

Question 18: Complete the following phrases from the text. For each phrase, can you find at least one other word that would fit into the blank?

Question 19: 1. Look at these words: upkeep, downpour, undergo, dropout, walk-in. They are built up from a verb (keep, pour, go, drop, walk) and an adverb or a particle (up, down, under, out, in). Use these words appropriately in the sentences below. You may consult a dictionary.

1. Think of suitable −ing or −ed adjectives to answer the following questions. How would you describe

Chapter 8 Mijbil the Otter

Question 1: What ‘experiment’ did Maxwell think Camusfearna would be suitable for?

Question 2: hy does he go to Basra? How long does he wait there, and why?

Question 3: How does he get the otter? Does he like it? Pick out the words that tell you this.

Question 4: Why was the otter named ‘Maxwell’s otter’?

Question 5: Tick the right answer. In the beginning, the otter was aloof and indifferent, friendly and hostile

Question 6: What happened when Maxwell took Mijbil to the bathroom? What did it do two days after that?

Question 7: How was Mij to be transported to England?

Question 8: What did Mij do to the box?

Question 9: Why did Maxwell put the otter back in the box? How do you think he felt when he did this?

Question 10: Why does Maxwell say the airhostess was “the very queen of her kind”?

Question 11: What happened when the box was opened?

Question 12: What things does Mij do which tell you that he is an intelligent, friendly and funloving animal who needs love?

Question 13: What are some of the things we come to know about otters from this text?

Question 14: Why is Mij’s species now known to the world as Maxwell’s otter?

Question 15: Maxwell in the story speaks for the otter, Mij. He tells us what the otter feels and thinks on different occasions. Given below are some things the otter does. Complete the column on the right to say what Maxwell says about what Mij feels and thinks.

Question 16: What game had Mij invented?

Question 18: What are ‘compulsive habits’? What does Maxwell say are the compulsive habits of (i) school children (ii) Mij?

Question 19: What group of animals do otters belong to?

Question 20: What guesses did the Londoners make about what Mij was?

Question 21: Read the story and find the sentences where Maxwell describes his pet otter. Thenchoose and arrange your sentences to illustrate those statements below that youthink are true.

Question 22: From the table below, make as many correct sentences as you can using would and/or used to, as appropriate. (Hint: First decide whether the words in italics show an action, or a state or situation, in the past.) Then add two or three sentences of your own to it.

Question 23:  II. Noun Modifiers
1. Look at these examples from the text, and say whether the modifiers (in italics) are nouns, proper nouns, or adjective plus noun.

Question 24:  1. Match the words on the left with a word on the right. Some words on the left can go with more than one word on the right.

2. Use a bit of/a piece of/a bunch of/a cloud of/a lump of with the italicised nouns ithe following sentences. The first has been done for you as an example.

Chapter 9 Madam Rides the Bus

Question 1: What was Valli’s favourite pastime?

Question 2: What was a source of unending joy for Valli? What was her strongest desire?

Question 3: What did Valli find out about the bus journey? How did she find out these details?

Question 4: What do you think Valli was planning to do?

Question 5: How do you usually understand the idea of ‘selfishness’? Do you agree with Kisa Gotami that she was being ‘selfish in her grief’?

Question 6: Why does the conductor call Valli ‘madam’?

Question 7: Why does Valli stand up on the seat? What does she see now?

Question 8: What does Valli tell the elderly man when he calls her a child?

Question 9:  Why didn’t Valli want to make friends with the elderly woman?

Question 10: How did Valli save up money for her first journey? Was it easy for her?

Question 11: What did Valli see on her way that made her laugh?

Question 12: Why didn’t she get off the bus at the bus station?

Question 13: Why didn’t Valli want to go to the stall and have a drink? What does this tell youabout her?

Question 14: What was Valli’s deepest desire? Find the words and phrases in the story that tell you this.

Question 15: How did Valli plan her bus ride? What did she find out about the bus, and how did she save up the fare?

Question 16:  What kind of a person is Valli? To answer this question, pick out the following sentences from the text and fill in the blanks. The words you fill in are the clues to your answer.]

(i) “Stop the bus! Stop the bus!” And a tiny hand was raised ________________.
(ii) “Yes, I ____________ go to town,” said Valli, still standing outside the bus.
(iii) “There’s nobody here ____________,” she said haughtily. “I’ve paid my thirty paise like everyone else.”
(iv) “Never mind,” she said, “I can ___________. You don’t have to help me. “I’m not a child, I tell you,” she said, _____________.
(v) “You needn’t bother about me. I _____________,” Valli said, turning her face toward the window and staring out.
(vi) Then she turned to the conductor and said, “Well, sir, I hope ______________.”

Question 17: Why does the conductor refer to Valli as ‘madam’?

Question 18: Find the lines in the text which tell you that Valli was enjoying her ride on the bus.

Question 19: Why does Valli refuse to look out of the window on her way back?

Question 20: What does Valli mean when she says, “I was just agreeing with what you said about things happening without our knowledge.”

Question 21: The author describes the things that Valii sees from an eight-year-old’s point of view. Can you find evidence from the text for this statement?

Chapter 10 The Sermon at Benares

Question 1: When her son dies, Kisa Gotami goes from house to house. What does she ask for? Does she get it? Why not?

Question 2: Kisa Gotami again goes from house to house after she speaks with the Buddha. What does she ask for, the second time around? Does she get it? Why not?

Question 3: What does Kisa Gotami understand the second time that she failed to understand the first time? Was this what the Buddha wanted her to understand

Question 4: Why do you think Kisa Gotami understood this only the second time? In what way did the Buddha change her understanding?

Question 5: This text is written in an old-fashioned style, for it reports an incident more than two millennia old. Look for the following words and phrases in the text, and try to rephrase them in more current language, based on how you understand them.

Question 6  You know that we can combine sentences using words like and, or, but, yet and then. But sometimes no such word seems appropriate. In such a case was can use a semicolon (;) or a dash (−) to combine two clauses. She has no interest in music; I doubt she will become a singer like her mother. The second clause here gives the speaker’s opinion on the first clause. Here is a sentence from the text that uses semicolons to combine clauses. Break up the sentence into three simple sentences. Can you then say which has a better rhythm when you read it, the single sentence using semicolons, or the three simple sentences? For there is not any means by which those who have been born can avoid dying; after reaching old age there is death; of such a nature are living beings.

Chapter 11 The Proposa

Question 1: 1. This play has been translated into English from the Russian original. Are there any expressions or ways of speaking that strike you as more Russian than English? For example, would an adult man be addressed by an older man as my darling or my treasure in an English play?

Read through the play carefully, and find expressions that you think are not used in contemporary English, and contrast these with idiomatic modern English expressions that also occur in the play.

3. Look up the following phrases in a dictionary to find out their meaning, and then use each in a sentence of your own.
(i) You may take it that
(ii) He seems to be coming round
(iii) My foot’s gone to sleep

Question 2: What does Chubukov at first suspect that Lomov has come for? Is he sincere when he later says “And I’ve always loved you, my angel, as if you were my own son”? Find reasons for your answer from the play.

Question 3: Chubukov says of Natalya: “... as if she won’t consent! She’s in love; egad, she’s like a lovesick cat…” Would you agree? Find reasons for your answer.

Question 4: (i) Find all the words and expressions in the play that the characters use to speak about each other, and the accusations and insults they hurl at each other. (For example, Lomov in the end calls Chubukov an intriguer; but earlier, Chubukov has himself called Lomov a “malicious, double faced intriguer.” Again, Lomov begins bydescribing Nayalya as “ an excellent housekeeper, not bad-looking, well-educated.”)

Question 5: You mush have noticed that when we report someone’s exact words, we have to make some changes in the sentence structure. In the following sentences fill in the blanks to list the changes that have occurred in the above pairs of sentences. One has been done for you.

1. To report a question, we use the reporting verb asked (as in Sentence Set 1).
2. To report a declaration, we use the reporting verb __________.
3. The adverb of place here changes to ___________.
4. When the verb in direct speech is in the present tense, the verb in reported speech is in the ______________ tense (as in Sentence Set 3).
5. If the verb in direct speech is in the present continuous tense, the verb in reported speech changes to ______________tense. For example, ____________ changes to was getting.
6. When the sentence in direct speech contains a word denoting respect, we add the adverb _______________in the reporting clause (as in Sentence Set 1).
7. The pronouns I, me, our and mine, which are used in the first person in direct speech, change to third person pronouns such as____________, ___________, ___________ or __________in reported speech.

Question 6:  Here is an excerpt from an article from the Times of India dated 27 August 2006. Rewrite it, changing the sentences in direct speech into reported speech. Leave the other sentences unchanged. “Why do you want to know my age? If people know I am so old, I won’t get work!” laughs 90-year-old A. K. Hangal, one of Hindi cinema’s most famous character actors. For his age, he is rather energetic. “What’s the secret?” we ask. “My intake of everything is in small quantities. And I walk a lot,” he replies. “I joined the industry when people retire. I was in my 40s. So I don’t miss being called a star. I am still respected and given work, when actors of my age are living in poverty and without work. I don’t have any complaints,” he says, adding, “but yes, I have always been underpaid.” Recipient of the Padma Bhushan, Hangal never hankered after money or materialistic gains. “No doubt I am content today, but money is important. I was a fool not to understand the value of money earlier,” he regrets.

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